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NR442 EXAM 2 /NR 442 COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

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NR442 EXAM 2 /NR 442 COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+ At a town meeting with public health officials to discuss a communicable disease outbreak, a nurse is asked to explain what is meant by the phrase "a virulent organism." The nurse explains that this means the organism causing the disease is able to do which of the following? a. Bypass normal immunological response mechanisms b. Invade major organ systems c. Produce toxins and poisons that weaken the body d. Produce very severe physical reactions ANS: D Virulence is the ability to produce a severe pathological reaction. Bypassing the normal immunological response mechanisms, invading major organ systems, and producing toxins and poisons that weaken the body are not correct definitions of virulence A client is using a primary prevention strategy to prevent infectious disease. Which of the following actions is the client most likely taking? a. A client receives a tetanus booster every 10 years. b. A client receives a tetanus booster after stepping on a nail. c. A client receives tetanus immunoglobulin after stepping on a nail. d. A client with tetanus is given antibiotics and is placed on seizure precautions ANS: A Tetanus boosters given before exposure are a measure of primary prevention because exposure has not yet occurred. If given after 2 | Page NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2 exposure (i.e., the client may be infected but disease has not developed), they are considered secondary prevention (similar to the textbook examples of immunoglobulin and rabies immunizations given after exposure). Immunoglobulin would be given if the client had not been previously immunized; however, this again is after exposure, so it is secondary prevention. Because the client has the condition, treatment is aimed at prevention of further injury. Which of the following infectious disease interventions best represents the use of secondary prevention? a. Clients with HIV infection are encouraged to use condoms to protect sexual partners. b. Clients with HIV infection are given medications to improve immunological response. c. Health care workers are encouraged to receive annual vaccinations for influenza. d. Health care workers are required to have a tuberculosis skin test or chest X-ray ANS: D Tuberculosis screening for health care workers is an example of secondary prevention. TB skin tests and chest X-rays are methods of tuberculosis screening. Encouraging clients with HIV to use condoms is an example of primary prevention, because the goal is to prevent exposure to the partner. Encouraging annual influenza vaccinations is also an example of primary prevention. Giving clients with HIV medications is an example of tertiary prevention, because the goal is to reduce complications in those already having the infection. Five students order meals at a local restaurant. Which of the following students are at highest risk for illness? (Select all that apply.) a. The first student asks for a salad with chicken strips and dressing on the side. b. The second student asks for a hamburger, very rare. 3 | Page NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2 c. The third student orders a tuna salad sandwich with extra mayonnaise. d. The fourth student orders a breakfast meal with two very soft-poached eggs and toast. e. The fifth student asks for a vegetable platter and a side of hummus ANS: B, D, E Escherichia coli O157:H7 can produce a strong cytotoxin that can cause a potentially fatal hemorrhagic colitis. Hamburger is often involved in outbreaks, since the grinding process exposes pathogens on the surface of the whole meat to the interior of the ground meat, effectively mixing the once-exterior bacteria thoroughly throughout the hamburger so that searing the surface no longer suffices to kill all bacteria. Also, hamburger is often made of meat ground from several sources. The best protection against foodborne pathogens is to thoroughly cook food before eating it. Salmonella is also transmitted by undercooked foods such as eggs, poultry, dairy products, vegetables and seafood. Consequently, students eating very rare hamburger and undercooked eggs are at high risk. The food items requested by the first (salad with chicken strips and dressing) and third (tuna salad sandwich with extra mayonnaise) students are at the lowest risk for illness. These foods have been thoroughly cooked which helps to assure that potential bacteria have been destroyed. Which of the following symptoms suggests smallpox as opposed to the more common and much less dangerous chickenpox? (Select all that apply.) a. Child appears only mildly ill until late stages in smallpox. b. Lesions appear in various stages in the same area of the body rather than all at once. c. Rash lesions are most abundant on the face and extremities, not on the trunk.

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NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2


NR442 EXAM 2 /NR 442 COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING EXAM 2
NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
At a town meeting with public health officials to discuss a communicable disease
outbreak, a nurse is asked to explain what is
meant by the phrase "a virulent organism." The nurse explains that this means the
organism causing the disease is able to do which
of the following?
a. Bypass normal immunological response mechanisms
b. Invade major organ systems
c. Produce toxins and poisons that weaken the body
d. Produce very severe physical reactions
ANS: D
Virulence is the ability to produce a severe pathological reaction. Bypassing the
normal immunological response mechanisms,
invading major organ systems, and producing toxins and poisons that weaken the
body are not correct definitions of virulence
A client is using a primary prevention strategy to prevent infectious disease.
Which of the following actions is the client most likely
taking?
a. A client receives a tetanus booster every 10 years.
b. A client receives a tetanus booster after stepping on a nail.
c. A client receives tetanus immunoglobulin after stepping on a nail.
d. A client with tetanus is given antibiotics and is placed on seizure precautions
ANS: A
Tetanus boosters given before exposure are a measure of primary prevention
because exposure has not yet occurred. If given after

1|Page

, NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2

exposure (i.e., the client may be infected but disease has not developed), they are
considered secondary prevention (similar to the
textbook examples of immunoglobulin and rabies immunizations given after
exposure). Immunoglobulin would be given if the
client had not been previously immunized; however, this again is after exposure,
so it is secondary prevention. Because the client
has the condition, treatment is aimed at prevention of further injury.
Which of the following infectious disease interventions best represents the use of
secondary prevention?
a. Clients with HIV infection are encouraged to use condoms to protect sexual
partners.
b. Clients with HIV infection are given medications to improve immunological
response.
c. Health care workers are encouraged to receive annual vaccinations for
influenza.
d. Health care workers are required to have a tuberculosis skin test or chest X-ray
ANS: D
Tuberculosis screening for health care workers is an example of secondary
prevention. TB skin tests and chest X-rays are methods
of tuberculosis screening. Encouraging clients with HIV to use condoms is an
example of primary prevention, because the goal is to
prevent exposure to the partner. Encouraging annual influenza vaccinations is also
an example of primary prevention. Giving
clients with HIV medications is an example of tertiary prevention, because the
goal is to reduce complications in those already
having the infection.
Five students order meals at a local restaurant. Which of the following students
are at highest risk for illness? (Select all that
apply.)
a. The first student asks for a salad with chicken strips and dressing on the side.
b. The second student asks for a hamburger, very rare.

2|Page

, NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2

c. The third student orders a tuna salad sandwich with extra mayonnaise.
d. The fourth student orders a breakfast meal with two very soft-poached eggs
and
toast.
e. The fifth student asks for a vegetable platter and a side of hummus
ANS: B, D, E
Escherichia coli O157:H7 can produce a strong cytotoxin that can cause a
potentially fatal hemorrhagic colitis. Hamburger is often
involved in outbreaks, since the grinding process exposes pathogens on the
surface of the whole meat to the interior of the ground
meat, effectively mixing the once-exterior bacteria thoroughly throughout the
hamburger so that searing the surface no longer
suffices to kill all bacteria. Also, hamburger is often made of meat ground from
several sources. The best protection against
foodborne pathogens is to thoroughly cook food before eating it. Salmonella is
also transmitted by undercooked foods such as eggs,
poultry, dairy products, vegetables and seafood. Consequently, students eating
very rare hamburger and undercooked eggs are at
high risk. The food items requested by the first (salad with chicken strips and
dressing) and third (tuna salad sandwich with extra
mayonnaise) students are at the lowest risk for illness. These foods have been
thoroughly cooked which helps to assure that
potential bacteria have been destroyed.
Which of the following symptoms suggests smallpox as opposed to the more
common and much less dangerous chickenpox?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Child appears only mildly ill until late stages in smallpox.
b. Lesions appear in various stages in the same area of the body rather than all at
once.
c. Rash lesions are most abundant on the face and extremities, not on the trunk.



3|Page

, NR442 Exam 2 /NR 442 Community Health Nursing Exam 2

d. Rash occurs 2 to 4 days after sudden onset of fever rather than with the fever.
e. Vesicles do not collapse when punctured
ANS: C, D, E
Symptoms of smallpox include rash lesions on face and extremities ("centripetal"),
rash that occurs 2 to 4 days after onset of fever,
and vesicles that are deep seated and do not collapse on puncture. Symptoms of
chickenpox include a sudden onset with slight
fever and mild constitutional symptoms, rash that is present at onset, rash
progression is maclopapular for a few hours, vesicular for
3 to 4 days, followed by granular scabs, rash is "centifugal" with lesions most
abundant on the trunk or areas of the body usually
covered by clothing, lesions appear in "crops" and can be at various stages in the
same area of the body, and vesicles are superficial
and collapse on puncture
The advanced practice nurse explains that the client has an upper respiratory
infection (URI) and suggests several measures that
might make the client more comfortable. Which of the following best describes
why the nurse doesn't just prescribe antibiotics as
the client repeatedly requests? (Select all that apply.)
a. Antibiotics are expensive, whereas the support measures would be almost free
of
cost.
b. Viral diseases are not affected by antibiotics.
c. Clinics cannot afford to continually give antibiotics to anyone who asks for
them.
d. The more antibiotics are prescribed, the more infectious agents develop
resistance
to such drugs.
e. Antibiotics are not particularly effective against coughs and nasal congestion
ANS: B, D
Antibiotics are not effective against viral diseases, a fact found unacceptable to

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