1
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology
Care of the Family Midterm Review 2025
– 100 Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales | Chamberlain | A+
Graded
Student Name: _________________________
Date: _______________
Time Limit: 120 minutes
Total Questions: 90
Week 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections
(22 Questions)
1. What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of amphotericin B in treating
systemic fungal infections?
a. Inhibits protein synthesis
b. Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes
c. Inhibits DNA replication
d. Blocks cell wall synthesis
Rationale: Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol, creating pores in fungal cell membranes,
leading to cell death. This is its primary fungicidal mechanism, per Lehne’s
Pharmacotherapeutics (2025).
2. How can nephrotoxicity be minimized when prescribing amphotericin B?
a. Administer with NSAIDs
b. Use liposomal formulations and monitor renal function
c. Increase dosage frequency
d. Co-administer with diuretics
Rationale: Liposomal amphotericin B (e.g., AmBisome) reduces nephrotoxicity
compared to conventional formulations. Regular monitoring of creatinine and electrolytes
is essential.
3. Which drug interaction is a concern with itraconazole?
a. Increased absorption with antacids
b. Prolonged QT interval with antiarrhythmics
c. Reduced efficacy with beta-blockers
d. Enhanced metabolism with NSAIDs
P a g e 1 | 16
, 2
Rationale: Itraconazole inhibits CYP3A4, increasing the risk of QT prolongation when
combined with antiarrhythmics like quinidine, per 2025 pharmacology guidelines.
4. What is a key therapeutic use of caspofungin?
a. Tinea pedis
b. Invasive candidiasis
c. Oral thrush
d. Herpes simplex virus
Rationale: Caspofungin, an echinocandin, is indicated for invasive candidiasis and
aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
5. What is a common adverse effect of caspofungin?
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Ototoxicity
d. Cardiotoxicity
Rationale: Caspofungin may cause hepatotoxicity, requiring liver function test
monitoring during prolonged therapy, per 2025 guidelines.
6. What is the primary indication for griseofulvin?
a. Systemic mycoses
b. Tinea capitis
c. Invasive aspergillosis
d. Cryptococcal meningitis
Rationale: Griseofulvin is primarily used for dermatophyte infections like tinea capitis,
especially in children, per 2025 dermatological guidelines.
7. What is the primary indication for oral terbinafine?
a. Oral thrush
b. Onychomycosis
c. Systemic candidiasis
d. Herpes zoster
Rationale: Terbinafine is highly effective for fungal nail infections (onychomycosis) due
to its fungicidal activity against dermatophytes, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
8. Which antifungal is preferred for tinea pedis in immunocompromised patients?
a. Griseofulvin
b. Topical terbinafine
c. Amphotericin B
d. Caspofungin
Rationale: Topical terbinafine is first-line for tinea pedis due to its efficacy and safety
profile, even in immunocompromised patients, per 2025 guidelines.
9. What is a key consideration when prescribing azoles to older adults?
a. Increased renal clearance
b. Monitor for heart failure with itraconazole
c. Reduced risk of hepatotoxicity
d. No dose adjustments needed
Rationale: Itraconazole can exacerbate heart failure in older adults with cardiac
conditions, requiring careful monitoring, per 2025 pharmacology data.
10. What is the MOA of acyclovir for herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
P a g e 2 | 16
, 3
b. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
c. Blocks protein synthesis
d. Prevents viral attachment
Rationale: Acyclovir is converted to its active form by viral thymidine kinase, inhibiting
viral DNA polymerase and replication, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
11. What is a key consideration for acyclovir’s route of administration?
a. Topical for severe infections
b. IV for herpes encephalitis
c. Oral for neonatal herpes
d. No renal monitoring needed
Rationale: IV acyclovir is indicated for severe infections like herpes encephalitis due to
its bioavailability and tissue penetration, with renal function monitoring required.
12. What is the primary indication for oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Influenza A and B treatment
c. HIV prophylaxis
d. Hepatitis C
Rationale: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat and prevent influenza A
and B, per 2025 antiviral guidelines.
13. When should oseltamivir be initiated for maximum efficacy?
a. Within 7 days of symptoms
b. Within 48 hours of symptom onset
c. After viral confirmation
d. At any time during illness
Rationale: Oseltamivir is most effective when started within 48 hours of influenza
symptom onset to reduce duration and severity, per 2025 guidelines.
14. What is a contraindication for the annual flu vaccine?
a. Mild cold symptoms
b. Severe egg allergy
c. Pregnancy
d. Age under 65
Rationale: Severe egg allergy is an absolute contraindication for egg-based flu vaccines
due to the risk of anaphylaxis, per CDC 2025 guidelines.
15. What is the purpose of the annual flu vaccine?
a. Treat active influenza infections
b. Prevent influenza and reduce severity
c. Cure chronic respiratory conditions
d. Treat bacterial pneumonia
Rationale: The flu vaccine prevents influenza and reduces complication risks in
vulnerable populations, updated annually for circulating strains, per CDC 2025.
16. What is the primary indication for palivizumab?
a. Influenza prophylaxis in adults
b. RSV prevention in high-risk infants
c. Herpes simplex treatment
d. Hepatitis B prophylaxis
P a g e 3 | 16
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology
Care of the Family Midterm Review 2025
– 100 Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales | Chamberlain | A+
Graded
Student Name: _________________________
Date: _______________
Time Limit: 120 minutes
Total Questions: 90
Week 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections
(22 Questions)
1. What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of amphotericin B in treating
systemic fungal infections?
a. Inhibits protein synthesis
b. Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes
c. Inhibits DNA replication
d. Blocks cell wall synthesis
Rationale: Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol, creating pores in fungal cell membranes,
leading to cell death. This is its primary fungicidal mechanism, per Lehne’s
Pharmacotherapeutics (2025).
2. How can nephrotoxicity be minimized when prescribing amphotericin B?
a. Administer with NSAIDs
b. Use liposomal formulations and monitor renal function
c. Increase dosage frequency
d. Co-administer with diuretics
Rationale: Liposomal amphotericin B (e.g., AmBisome) reduces nephrotoxicity
compared to conventional formulations. Regular monitoring of creatinine and electrolytes
is essential.
3. Which drug interaction is a concern with itraconazole?
a. Increased absorption with antacids
b. Prolonged QT interval with antiarrhythmics
c. Reduced efficacy with beta-blockers
d. Enhanced metabolism with NSAIDs
P a g e 1 | 16
, 2
Rationale: Itraconazole inhibits CYP3A4, increasing the risk of QT prolongation when
combined with antiarrhythmics like quinidine, per 2025 pharmacology guidelines.
4. What is a key therapeutic use of caspofungin?
a. Tinea pedis
b. Invasive candidiasis
c. Oral thrush
d. Herpes simplex virus
Rationale: Caspofungin, an echinocandin, is indicated for invasive candidiasis and
aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
5. What is a common adverse effect of caspofungin?
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Ototoxicity
d. Cardiotoxicity
Rationale: Caspofungin may cause hepatotoxicity, requiring liver function test
monitoring during prolonged therapy, per 2025 guidelines.
6. What is the primary indication for griseofulvin?
a. Systemic mycoses
b. Tinea capitis
c. Invasive aspergillosis
d. Cryptococcal meningitis
Rationale: Griseofulvin is primarily used for dermatophyte infections like tinea capitis,
especially in children, per 2025 dermatological guidelines.
7. What is the primary indication for oral terbinafine?
a. Oral thrush
b. Onychomycosis
c. Systemic candidiasis
d. Herpes zoster
Rationale: Terbinafine is highly effective for fungal nail infections (onychomycosis) due
to its fungicidal activity against dermatophytes, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
8. Which antifungal is preferred for tinea pedis in immunocompromised patients?
a. Griseofulvin
b. Topical terbinafine
c. Amphotericin B
d. Caspofungin
Rationale: Topical terbinafine is first-line for tinea pedis due to its efficacy and safety
profile, even in immunocompromised patients, per 2025 guidelines.
9. What is a key consideration when prescribing azoles to older adults?
a. Increased renal clearance
b. Monitor for heart failure with itraconazole
c. Reduced risk of hepatotoxicity
d. No dose adjustments needed
Rationale: Itraconazole can exacerbate heart failure in older adults with cardiac
conditions, requiring careful monitoring, per 2025 pharmacology data.
10. What is the MOA of acyclovir for herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
P a g e 2 | 16
, 3
b. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
c. Blocks protein synthesis
d. Prevents viral attachment
Rationale: Acyclovir is converted to its active form by viral thymidine kinase, inhibiting
viral DNA polymerase and replication, per Lehne’s Pharmacotherapeutics.
11. What is a key consideration for acyclovir’s route of administration?
a. Topical for severe infections
b. IV for herpes encephalitis
c. Oral for neonatal herpes
d. No renal monitoring needed
Rationale: IV acyclovir is indicated for severe infections like herpes encephalitis due to
its bioavailability and tissue penetration, with renal function monitoring required.
12. What is the primary indication for oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Influenza A and B treatment
c. HIV prophylaxis
d. Hepatitis C
Rationale: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat and prevent influenza A
and B, per 2025 antiviral guidelines.
13. When should oseltamivir be initiated for maximum efficacy?
a. Within 7 days of symptoms
b. Within 48 hours of symptom onset
c. After viral confirmation
d. At any time during illness
Rationale: Oseltamivir is most effective when started within 48 hours of influenza
symptom onset to reduce duration and severity, per 2025 guidelines.
14. What is a contraindication for the annual flu vaccine?
a. Mild cold symptoms
b. Severe egg allergy
c. Pregnancy
d. Age under 65
Rationale: Severe egg allergy is an absolute contraindication for egg-based flu vaccines
due to the risk of anaphylaxis, per CDC 2025 guidelines.
15. What is the purpose of the annual flu vaccine?
a. Treat active influenza infections
b. Prevent influenza and reduce severity
c. Cure chronic respiratory conditions
d. Treat bacterial pneumonia
Rationale: The flu vaccine prevents influenza and reduces complication risks in
vulnerable populations, updated annually for circulating strains, per CDC 2025.
16. What is the primary indication for palivizumab?
a. Influenza prophylaxis in adults
b. RSV prevention in high-risk infants
c. Herpes simplex treatment
d. Hepatitis B prophylaxis
P a g e 3 | 16
