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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2025–2026 | 180 NGN Questions & 100%
Verified Answers | A+ Grade
1)
A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has heart failure and
has been prescribed furosemide. The client asks, “Why do I need to eat bananas
every day?” What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
A. “Bananas will prevent constipation.”
B. “Bananas replace potassium lost through urination.”
C. “Bananas help reduce swelling in your legs.”
D. “Bananas prevent dehydration.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. Consuming
potassium-rich foods like bananas prevents hypokalemia. Constipation prevention
is fiber-related, not potassium. Bananas do not directly reduce edema or prevent
dehydration.
2)
A client with type 1 diabetes reports nausea, excessive thirst, and frequent
urination. The nurse notes fruity-smelling breath. Which action is priority?
A. Administer subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin.
B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
C. Offer an oral carbohydrate snack.
D. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client shows signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) — priority is
fluid resuscitation with isotonic fluids to correct dehydration before insulin
administration.
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3)
A nurse is providing care to a client 12 hours postpartum who is breastfeeding. The
client complains of breast engorgement. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply cold compresses between feedings.
B. Limit feedings to every 4 hours.
C. Offer a pacifier between feeds to rest the nipples.
D. Massage the breasts vigorously before feeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cold compresses reduce swelling and discomfort. Feeding frequently
(every 2–3 hours) is encouraged, not limited. Pacifiers can reduce breastfeeding
stimulation, and vigorous massage can damage tissue.
4)
A client with COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 L/min. The nurse
notices the client’s respiratory rate decreases to 8 breaths/min. Which action is
priority?
A. Lower the oxygen flow rate.
B. Stimulate the client to breathe deeply.
C. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
D. Notify the provider immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High oxygen flow can suppress respiratory drive in COPD clients who
rely on hypoxic drive. Lowering oxygen is priority while monitoring closely.
5)
A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. Which statement
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.”
B. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
C. “I will use an electric razor instead of a blade.”
D. “I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
Correct Answer: A
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Rationale: Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent vitamin K intake, not
avoid it entirely. INR monitoring and bleeding precautions are correct.
6)
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to water seal drainage.
The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which action is
most appropriate?
A. Document the finding as expected.
B. Check for an air leak in the system.
C. Increase suction pressure.
D. Clamp the chest tube.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak,
which must be identified and corrected. Intermittent bubbling is expected with
pneumothorax.
7)
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
D. 1+ pedal edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Immediate action is
needed to prevent respiratory depression, typically by stopping infusion and giving
calcium gluconate.
8)
A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells to a client. Which step
should the nurse take first?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with normal saline.
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B. Obtain the client’s baseline vital signs.
C. Verify the provider’s prescription.
D. Check the client’s identification and blood product label with another nurse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step is verifying the prescription. Then obtain baseline vitals,
prime tubing, and verify product and patient with another nurse.
9)
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed lithium carbonate.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will drink 2–3 liters of water every day.”
B. “I can take over-the-counter diuretics if I have swelling.”
C. “I will increase my salt intake to help the medication work.”
D. “If I have diarrhea, I can just skip my next dose.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate hydration prevents lithium toxicity. Diuretics and significant
salt changes affect lithium levels. Diarrhea is a toxicity sign requiring provider
notification.
10)
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in a client who is alert but has
difficulty swallowing. Which action is most appropriate to reduce discomfort?
A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
B. Ask the client to tilt their head backward during insertion.
C. Use cold water to lubricate the tube.
D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water during advancement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sips of water facilitate swallowing and tube passage. High Fowler’s
position is correct but occurs before insertion. Tilting backward increases
aspiration risk.
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2025–2026 | 180 NGN Questions & 100%
Verified Answers | A+ Grade
1)
A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has heart failure and
has been prescribed furosemide. The client asks, “Why do I need to eat bananas
every day?” What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
A. “Bananas will prevent constipation.”
B. “Bananas replace potassium lost through urination.”
C. “Bananas help reduce swelling in your legs.”
D. “Bananas prevent dehydration.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. Consuming
potassium-rich foods like bananas prevents hypokalemia. Constipation prevention
is fiber-related, not potassium. Bananas do not directly reduce edema or prevent
dehydration.
2)
A client with type 1 diabetes reports nausea, excessive thirst, and frequent
urination. The nurse notes fruity-smelling breath. Which action is priority?
A. Administer subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin.
B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
C. Offer an oral carbohydrate snack.
D. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client shows signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) — priority is
fluid resuscitation with isotonic fluids to correct dehydration before insulin
administration.
, 2
3)
A nurse is providing care to a client 12 hours postpartum who is breastfeeding. The
client complains of breast engorgement. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply cold compresses between feedings.
B. Limit feedings to every 4 hours.
C. Offer a pacifier between feeds to rest the nipples.
D. Massage the breasts vigorously before feeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cold compresses reduce swelling and discomfort. Feeding frequently
(every 2–3 hours) is encouraged, not limited. Pacifiers can reduce breastfeeding
stimulation, and vigorous massage can damage tissue.
4)
A client with COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 L/min. The nurse
notices the client’s respiratory rate decreases to 8 breaths/min. Which action is
priority?
A. Lower the oxygen flow rate.
B. Stimulate the client to breathe deeply.
C. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
D. Notify the provider immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High oxygen flow can suppress respiratory drive in COPD clients who
rely on hypoxic drive. Lowering oxygen is priority while monitoring closely.
5)
A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. Which statement
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.”
B. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
C. “I will use an electric razor instead of a blade.”
D. “I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
Correct Answer: A
, 3
Rationale: Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent vitamin K intake, not
avoid it entirely. INR monitoring and bleeding precautions are correct.
6)
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to water seal drainage.
The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which action is
most appropriate?
A. Document the finding as expected.
B. Check for an air leak in the system.
C. Increase suction pressure.
D. Clamp the chest tube.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak,
which must be identified and corrected. Intermittent bubbling is expected with
pneumothorax.
7)
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
D. 1+ pedal edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Immediate action is
needed to prevent respiratory depression, typically by stopping infusion and giving
calcium gluconate.
8)
A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells to a client. Which step
should the nurse take first?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with normal saline.
, 4
B. Obtain the client’s baseline vital signs.
C. Verify the provider’s prescription.
D. Check the client’s identification and blood product label with another nurse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step is verifying the prescription. Then obtain baseline vitals,
prime tubing, and verify product and patient with another nurse.
9)
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed lithium carbonate.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will drink 2–3 liters of water every day.”
B. “I can take over-the-counter diuretics if I have swelling.”
C. “I will increase my salt intake to help the medication work.”
D. “If I have diarrhea, I can just skip my next dose.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate hydration prevents lithium toxicity. Diuretics and significant
salt changes affect lithium levels. Diarrhea is a toxicity sign requiring provider
notification.
10)
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in a client who is alert but has
difficulty swallowing. Which action is most appropriate to reduce discomfort?
A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
B. Ask the client to tilt their head backward during insertion.
C. Use cold water to lubricate the tube.
D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water during advancement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sips of water facilitate swallowing and tube passage. High Fowler’s
position is correct but occurs before insertion. Tilting backward increases
aspiration risk.
