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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam NGN 180
Questions & Answers (2025/2026) – 100% Verified, A+ Grade
Question 1 – Fundamentals (NGN Case)
A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client admitted with pneumonia. The client has
an SpO₂ of 88% on room air, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and is febrile at 38.5°C
(101.3°F). The provider prescribes oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
nursing action should be implemented first?
A. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
B. Obtain a sputum culture
C. Administer acetaminophen for fever
D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct Answer: A. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Rationale: This position maximizes lung expansion and oxygenation before any
other interventions. The immediate priority is improving oxygenation; other
interventions can follow.
Question 2 – Pharmacology (NGN 3-Step Drop-Down)
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client with heart failure. Which
of the following assessments is most important before giving the medication?
Step 1: Vital sign to check before administration: Apical pulse
Step 2: Heart rate parameter for holding the dose: Less than 60 bpm
Step 3: Primary concern with toxicity: Visual disturbances
Correct Answer: Apical pulse; Less than 60 bpm; Visual disturbances
, 2
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; hold if HR < 60 bpm. Toxicity often
presents as visual changes such as yellow/green halos.
Question 3 – Maternity (Case Study)
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who delivered 4 hours ago. The fundus is
boggy, deviated to the right, and there is moderate lochia rubra. Which intervention
is priority?
A. Massage the uterus
B. Call the healthcare provider
C. Administer oxytocin as prescribed
D. Encourage the client to void
Correct Answer: D. Encourage the client to void
Rationale: A deviated, boggy uterus often indicates bladder distention. Voiding
allows the uterus to contract effectively. Massage is secondary once bladder is
empty.
Question 4 – Med-Surg (NGN Matrix)
A client with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-
procedure actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
A. Assess patency of AV fistula by palpation and auscultation
B. Check the client’s weight
C. Administer antihypertensives immediately before dialysis
D. Review recent laboratory values, including potassium
E. Restrict all oral fluids
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Patency, weight, and labs are crucial for dialysis preparation.
Antihypertensives may cause hypotension during dialysis; timing is important.
Fluid restriction is individualized.
, 3
Question 5 – Pediatrics (Scenario)
A 6-year-old with sickle cell anemia presents with severe pain in the legs. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply cold compresses to legs
B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Ambulate the child to increase circulation
Correct Answer: B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic
Rationale: Pain crises require immediate pain relief and hydration. Cold
compresses cause vasoconstriction; fluids should be encouraged, not restricted.
Ambulation can worsen pain during crisis.
Question 6 – Psychiatric Nursing
A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who reports hearing voices telling
them to harm themselves. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Ask the client what the voices are saying
B. Tell the client the voices are not real
C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication
D. Place the client in seclusion
Correct Answer: A. Ask the client what the voices are saying
Rationale: Assessing the content of hallucinations is essential to determine the risk
of harm. This assessment takes priority over reassurance or medication
administration.
Question 7 – Pharmacology
A nurse is preparing to administer IV vancomycin to a client with MRSA. Which
action should be taken to reduce the risk of red man syndrome?
A. Administer the medication over at least 60 minutes
B. Flush the IV line rapidly after administration
C. Give with a bolus of normal saline
D. Administer the drug IM instead of IV
, 4
Correct Answer: A. Administer the medication over at least 60 minutes
Rationale: Infusing vancomycin slowly reduces histamine release and prevents
flushing, rash, and hypotension associated with red man syndrome.
Question 8 – Med-Surg
A nurse is assessing a client 2 days post-abdominal surgery who suddenly reports
shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notes oxygen saturation of 85%.
What is the priority action?
A. Notify the rapid response team
B. Administer prescribed pain medication
C. Apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask
D. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Correct Answer: C. Apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask
Rationale: Immediate oxygenation is the first step in managing suspected
pulmonary embolism. Positioning and notification follow once oxygen delivery
has begun.
Question 9 – Maternity
A nurse is caring for a client at 36 weeks’ gestation with severe preeclampsia.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent seizures?
A. Nifedipine
B. Labetalol
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oxytocin
Correct Answer: C. Magnesium sulfate
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent and control seizures in
preeclampsia/eclampsia by depressing CNS activity.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam NGN 180
Questions & Answers (2025/2026) – 100% Verified, A+ Grade
Question 1 – Fundamentals (NGN Case)
A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client admitted with pneumonia. The client has
an SpO₂ of 88% on room air, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and is febrile at 38.5°C
(101.3°F). The provider prescribes oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
nursing action should be implemented first?
A. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
B. Obtain a sputum culture
C. Administer acetaminophen for fever
D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct Answer: A. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Rationale: This position maximizes lung expansion and oxygenation before any
other interventions. The immediate priority is improving oxygenation; other
interventions can follow.
Question 2 – Pharmacology (NGN 3-Step Drop-Down)
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client with heart failure. Which
of the following assessments is most important before giving the medication?
Step 1: Vital sign to check before administration: Apical pulse
Step 2: Heart rate parameter for holding the dose: Less than 60 bpm
Step 3: Primary concern with toxicity: Visual disturbances
Correct Answer: Apical pulse; Less than 60 bpm; Visual disturbances
, 2
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; hold if HR < 60 bpm. Toxicity often
presents as visual changes such as yellow/green halos.
Question 3 – Maternity (Case Study)
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who delivered 4 hours ago. The fundus is
boggy, deviated to the right, and there is moderate lochia rubra. Which intervention
is priority?
A. Massage the uterus
B. Call the healthcare provider
C. Administer oxytocin as prescribed
D. Encourage the client to void
Correct Answer: D. Encourage the client to void
Rationale: A deviated, boggy uterus often indicates bladder distention. Voiding
allows the uterus to contract effectively. Massage is secondary once bladder is
empty.
Question 4 – Med-Surg (NGN Matrix)
A client with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-
procedure actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
A. Assess patency of AV fistula by palpation and auscultation
B. Check the client’s weight
C. Administer antihypertensives immediately before dialysis
D. Review recent laboratory values, including potassium
E. Restrict all oral fluids
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Patency, weight, and labs are crucial for dialysis preparation.
Antihypertensives may cause hypotension during dialysis; timing is important.
Fluid restriction is individualized.
, 3
Question 5 – Pediatrics (Scenario)
A 6-year-old with sickle cell anemia presents with severe pain in the legs. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply cold compresses to legs
B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Ambulate the child to increase circulation
Correct Answer: B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic
Rationale: Pain crises require immediate pain relief and hydration. Cold
compresses cause vasoconstriction; fluids should be encouraged, not restricted.
Ambulation can worsen pain during crisis.
Question 6 – Psychiatric Nursing
A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who reports hearing voices telling
them to harm themselves. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Ask the client what the voices are saying
B. Tell the client the voices are not real
C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication
D. Place the client in seclusion
Correct Answer: A. Ask the client what the voices are saying
Rationale: Assessing the content of hallucinations is essential to determine the risk
of harm. This assessment takes priority over reassurance or medication
administration.
Question 7 – Pharmacology
A nurse is preparing to administer IV vancomycin to a client with MRSA. Which
action should be taken to reduce the risk of red man syndrome?
A. Administer the medication over at least 60 minutes
B. Flush the IV line rapidly after administration
C. Give with a bolus of normal saline
D. Administer the drug IM instead of IV
, 4
Correct Answer: A. Administer the medication over at least 60 minutes
Rationale: Infusing vancomycin slowly reduces histamine release and prevents
flushing, rash, and hypotension associated with red man syndrome.
Question 8 – Med-Surg
A nurse is assessing a client 2 days post-abdominal surgery who suddenly reports
shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notes oxygen saturation of 85%.
What is the priority action?
A. Notify the rapid response team
B. Administer prescribed pain medication
C. Apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask
D. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Correct Answer: C. Apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask
Rationale: Immediate oxygenation is the first step in managing suspected
pulmonary embolism. Positioning and notification follow once oxygen delivery
has begun.
Question 9 – Maternity
A nurse is caring for a client at 36 weeks’ gestation with severe preeclampsia.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent seizures?
A. Nifedipine
B. Labetalol
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oxytocin
Correct Answer: C. Magnesium sulfate
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent and control seizures in
preeclampsia/eclampsia by depressing CNS activity.
