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VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY 2024/2025 TEST BANK / PHARMACOLOGY VATI RN LATEST EXAM 2025 TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

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This document provides the complete VATI RN Pharmacology 2024–2025 test bank, including 80+ multiple-choice questions with verified correct answers and detailed rationales. Topics cover essential nursing pharmacology concepts such as medication administration, adverse effects, contraindications, therapeutic uses, and nursing responsibilities across major drug classes. It is an excellent resource for NCLEX preparation, ATI, and VATI RN exams.

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VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY 2024/2025 TEST BANK /
PHARMACOLOGY VATI RN LATEST EXAM 2025 TEST BANK
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

Question 1

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following

adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

A) Dry cough

B) Dizziness upon standing

C) Metallic taste

D) Swelling of the face and tongue

E) Fatigue

Correct Answer: D) Swelling of the face and tongue

Rationale: Swelling of the face and tongue, known as angioedema, is a rare but life-

threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril due to airway

obstruction. It requires immediate medical attention. While a dry cough (A) is

common, dizziness (B) can occur, and fatigue (E) and metallic taste (C) are less

common side effects, angioedema is the most critical to report.

Question 2

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. The nurse should

withhold the medication and notify the provider if the client's apical pulse is less than which of

the following?

A) 50/min

B) 60/min

C) 70/min

D) 80/min

,E) 90/min

Correct Answer: B) 60/min

Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate and strengthens cardiac contractions. Before

administering digoxin, the nurse must assess the apical pulse for a full minute. If

the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute in an adult, the medication should

be withheld, and the provider notified due to the risk of severe bradycardia.

Question 3

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.

Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "I will take aspirin for any headaches."

B) "I should eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."

C) "I will stop the medication if I have bleeding gums."

D) "I can drink alcohol in moderation."

E) "I will have my blood checked every 6 months."

Correct Answer: B) "I should eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."

Rationale: Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is affected by Vitamin K, which is abundant

in green leafy vegetables. Clients should maintain a consistent intake of Vitamin K-

rich foods rather than avoiding them, to prevent fluctuations in INR. Aspirin (A)

increases bleeding risk and should be avoided. Bleeding gums (C) should be

reported, but the medication should not be stopped without consulting the

provider. Alcohol (D) can increase warfarin's effects and should be limited or

avoided. INR (E) monitoring is typically more frequent than every 6 months,

especially when initiating therapy or adjusting dosage.

,Question 4

A nurse is administering insulin glargine to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the

following actions should the nurse take?

A) Administer the insulin intravenously.

B) Mix the insulin with insulin lispro in the same syringe.

C) Inject the insulin subcutaneously at bedtime.

D) Administer the insulin after the client eats a meal.

E) Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the dose.

Correct Answer: C) Inject the insulin subcutaneously at bedtime.

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin, typically administered once daily,

often at bedtime, to provide a steady basal insulin level over 24 hours. It is

administered subcutaneously (A), never intravenously. It should not be mixed with

other insulins (B) because it can alter its action. Administering after a meal (D) is

not specific to glargine's timing, which is meant to cover basal needs, not post-meal

spikes. Vigorously shaking (E) can damage the insulin molecule; vials should be

gently rolled.

Question 5

A client with a urinary tract infection has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin. The nurse

should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects immediately?

A) Nausea

B) Headache

C) Tendon pain

D) Diarrhea

, E) Dizziness

Correct Answer: C) Tendon pain

Rationale: Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, carry a Black Box Warning for an

increased risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture, especially of the Achilles tendon.

Tendon pain or swelling should be reported immediately. Nausea (A), headache

(B), diarrhea (D), and dizziness (E) are common, but less critical, adverse effects.

Question 6

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which laboratory

value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

A) Sodium

B) Potassium

C) Calcium

D) Magnesium

E) Chloride

Correct Answer: B) Potassium

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of potassium,

leading to a risk of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor potassium levels closely

before administration to prevent dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. While other

electrolytes (A, C, D, E) can be affected, potassium is the primary concern with

loop diuretics.

Question 7

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for a

fluticasone inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

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