ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored EXAM
NEW VERSION LATEST UPDATE 2025-2026
WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS GUARANTEED
PASS BEST STUDYING MATERIAL
1. How should a client use sublingual nitroglycerin tablets?
A) Swallow the tablet whole with water
B) Place the tablet under the tongue to dissolve
C) Place the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve
D) Chew the tablet before swallowing
Correct Answer: C) Place the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets dissolve best when placed between the cheek and
gum, allowing rapid absorption through the oral mucosa.
2. What teaching should be provided to a client taking sustained-release theophylline
capsules?
A) Avoid all dairy products
B) Blood levels will need to be monitored
C) Take only once weekly
D) Take on an empty stomach only
Correct Answer: B) Blood levels will need to be monitored
Rationale: Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic window; monitoring blood levels ensures
safe and effective dosing.
3. When mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin, what is the first action?
A) Draw up regular insulin first
B) Inject air into the regular insulin vial first
C) Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first
D) Mix both insulins in one syringe without injecting air
,Correct Answer: C) Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first
Rationale: Injecting air into the NPH vial first prevents contamination and helps maintain
proper vial pressure.
4. Where should subcutaneous heparin be injected?
A) Directly into the umbilicus
B) At least 5 cm (2 inches) away from the umbilicus
C) In the deltoid muscle
D) Into a vein
Correct Answer: B) At least 5 cm (2 inches) away from the umbilicus
Rationale: To avoid bleeding and bruising, heparin should be injected subcutaneously away
from the umbilicus.
5. What is an indication of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin?
A) Mild headache
B) Rash on the arm
C) Laryngeal edema
D) Mild nausea
Correct Answer: C) Laryngeal edema
Rationale: Laryngeal edema is a life-threatening allergic reaction requiring immediate medical
attention.
6. For which client should medication reconciliation be performed?
A) A client admitted for surgery
B) A client discharged home
C) A client transferred to a step-down unit
D) A client receiving outpatient therapy
Correct Answer: C) A client transferred to a step-down unit
Rationale: Medication reconciliation is crucial during transfers to ensure medication accuracy
and prevent errors.
7. Which lab value indicates atorvastatin treatment effectiveness?
A) HDL 80 mg/dL
, B) LDL 120 mg/dL
C) Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL
D) Triglycerides 300 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B) LDL 120 mg/dL
Rationale: Lowering LDL cholesterol to near or below 120 mg/dL indicates effective
atorvastatin therapy.
8. How should morphine IV push orders be transcribed correctly?
A) Morphine 6 mg IM every 3 hours PRN pain
B) Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hours PRN acute pain
C) Morphine 6 mg orally every 3 hours PRN pain
D) Morphine 6 mg IV push once daily
Correct Answer: B) Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hours PRN acute pain
Rationale: This transcription includes dose, route, frequency, and indication correctly.
9. What action should be taken for a cool, edematous IV site?
A) Apply warm compress
B) Continue infusion
C) Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site
D) Flush the existing IV line
Correct Answer: C) Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site
Rationale: Signs of infiltration require removal and placement of a new IV to prevent tissue
damage.
10. What teaching is important for a client taking clozapine?
A) Avoid grapefruit juice
B) Notify your provider if you develop a fever
C) Increase salt intake
D) Avoid all dairy products
Correct Answer: B) Notify your provider if you develop a fever
Rationale: Fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine.
NEW VERSION LATEST UPDATE 2025-2026
WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS GUARANTEED
PASS BEST STUDYING MATERIAL
1. How should a client use sublingual nitroglycerin tablets?
A) Swallow the tablet whole with water
B) Place the tablet under the tongue to dissolve
C) Place the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve
D) Chew the tablet before swallowing
Correct Answer: C) Place the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets dissolve best when placed between the cheek and
gum, allowing rapid absorption through the oral mucosa.
2. What teaching should be provided to a client taking sustained-release theophylline
capsules?
A) Avoid all dairy products
B) Blood levels will need to be monitored
C) Take only once weekly
D) Take on an empty stomach only
Correct Answer: B) Blood levels will need to be monitored
Rationale: Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic window; monitoring blood levels ensures
safe and effective dosing.
3. When mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin, what is the first action?
A) Draw up regular insulin first
B) Inject air into the regular insulin vial first
C) Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first
D) Mix both insulins in one syringe without injecting air
,Correct Answer: C) Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first
Rationale: Injecting air into the NPH vial first prevents contamination and helps maintain
proper vial pressure.
4. Where should subcutaneous heparin be injected?
A) Directly into the umbilicus
B) At least 5 cm (2 inches) away from the umbilicus
C) In the deltoid muscle
D) Into a vein
Correct Answer: B) At least 5 cm (2 inches) away from the umbilicus
Rationale: To avoid bleeding and bruising, heparin should be injected subcutaneously away
from the umbilicus.
5. What is an indication of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin?
A) Mild headache
B) Rash on the arm
C) Laryngeal edema
D) Mild nausea
Correct Answer: C) Laryngeal edema
Rationale: Laryngeal edema is a life-threatening allergic reaction requiring immediate medical
attention.
6. For which client should medication reconciliation be performed?
A) A client admitted for surgery
B) A client discharged home
C) A client transferred to a step-down unit
D) A client receiving outpatient therapy
Correct Answer: C) A client transferred to a step-down unit
Rationale: Medication reconciliation is crucial during transfers to ensure medication accuracy
and prevent errors.
7. Which lab value indicates atorvastatin treatment effectiveness?
A) HDL 80 mg/dL
, B) LDL 120 mg/dL
C) Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL
D) Triglycerides 300 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B) LDL 120 mg/dL
Rationale: Lowering LDL cholesterol to near or below 120 mg/dL indicates effective
atorvastatin therapy.
8. How should morphine IV push orders be transcribed correctly?
A) Morphine 6 mg IM every 3 hours PRN pain
B) Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hours PRN acute pain
C) Morphine 6 mg orally every 3 hours PRN pain
D) Morphine 6 mg IV push once daily
Correct Answer: B) Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hours PRN acute pain
Rationale: This transcription includes dose, route, frequency, and indication correctly.
9. What action should be taken for a cool, edematous IV site?
A) Apply warm compress
B) Continue infusion
C) Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site
D) Flush the existing IV line
Correct Answer: C) Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site
Rationale: Signs of infiltration require removal and placement of a new IV to prevent tissue
damage.
10. What teaching is important for a client taking clozapine?
A) Avoid grapefruit juice
B) Notify your provider if you develop a fever
C) Increase salt intake
D) Avoid all dairy products
Correct Answer: B) Notify your provider if you develop a fever
Rationale: Fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine.
