Athletic Injuries 5th Edition Chad Starkey
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,Chapter 1: Examination Process
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. True/False. The clinician should consider the contralateral side during the evaluation process.
ANS: True
2. All of the following are considered a part of the inspection aspect of the evaluation process
except:
a. Functional limitations that are present
b. Obvious or subtle deformity
c. Cuts, abrasions, open wounds
d. Point tenderness
ANS: D
3. Which of the following components of the exam is the most informative?
a. History
b. Inspection/observation
c. Palpation
d. Special tests
ANS: A
4. The medical record does not allow for which of the following?
a. Communicating information about the patient
b. Documenting facts regarding the patient
c. Giving a disposition about the patient
d. Giving the treatment protocol for the patient
ANS: D
5. True/False. The ICF model tends to focus on the patient’s pathology.
ANS: False
6. Short Answer: List 10 history questions that might be included in the initial evaluation.
7. Which of the following should not be done in an effort to minimize the risk of misdiagnosis?
a. Involve patients in their own healthcare.
b. Understand cultural groups’ attitudes, beliefs, and values as related to issues of
health and illness.
c. Use only the clinician’s experiences or cultural beliefs when thinking about a di-
agnosis.
d. Use cultural resources and knowledge to address healthcare problems.
, ANS: C
8. True/False. During the history taking process, the clinician should ask about previous injury to
the uninjured limb.
ANS: True
9. All of the following are appropriate previous history questions except:
a. When did this episode occur?
b. Has it reoccurred since the initial onset?
c. Are you allergic to any medication?
d. Who evaluated and treated this injury previously?
ANS: C
10. A patient comes to the athletic training room with an acute ankle sprain. Which of the
following pain descriptions is typically used to indicate acute pain symptoms?
a. “It hurts from my toes to my knee.”
b. “My whole ankle is throbbing.”
c. “It hurts right here” (pointing to the anterior talofibular ligament).
d. There is no difference between the feeling of acute and chronic pain.
ANS: C
,Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When performing an immediate on-field examination, which of the following should be
evaluated first?
a. Obstructed airway
b. Shock like symptoms
c. Fractures
d. Lightheadedness
ANS: A
2. For every minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of surviving sudden cardiac arrest
reduces by what percentage?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 7%
d. 10%
ANS: D
3. Which of the following should be included in the emergency action planning?
a. Personnel, equipment, lines of communication
b. Personnel, equipment, all administrators present at event
c. Equipment, lines of communication, phone number of parents
d. Equipment, phone numbers of parents, all administrators present at the event
ANS: A
4. True/False. Regardless of sport, the athletic trainer can run onto the field of play when an
injury occurs.
ANS: False
5. The primary goal of the initial examination is to determine:
a. What care the patient should receive
b. Who will assist with medical care
c. If the condition requires emergency management
d. When the athlete should be removed from the field
ANS: C
6. List seven aspects that the on-field examination should rule out.
7. Ideally, how many responders should begin the evaluation process:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. As many as possible
, ANS: B
8. After splinting an injury, the athlete complains that the pain is getting worse. Which of the
following might give you information regarding the injury?
a. Visual analog pain scale
b. Taking off the splint
c. The athlete realizing that he or she is injured and the pain is going to increase
d. Capillary refill distal to the injury site
ANS: D
9. Football face mask removal is easiest when using:
a. Cordless screwdriver
b. Pruning sheers
c. Trainers Angels
d. Manual screwdriver
ANS: A
10. The return-to-activity decision should be based on all of the following except the
a. relative risk of reinjury.
b. athlete’s functional ability.
c. athlete’s gender.
d. athlete’s age.
ANS: C
Rationale: Gender should not alter a return-to-activity decision.
,Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Evidence-based practice, a foundation of best practice, is the incorporation of three elements
into the decision-making process of patient care. Which of the following is not one of these
elements?
a. Best available research
b. Clinical expertise
c. The overall time to achieve long-term goals
d. The needs and values of the individual patient
ANS: C
2. Which of the following is considered the highest level of evidence?
a. Systematic review
b. Meta-analysis
c. Randomized clinical trials
d. Cohort studies
ANS: B
3. Short Answer: Describe the differences between intrarater and interrater reliability.
4. What reliability coefficient should be used when comparing clinicians?
a. Kappa
b. Gamma
c. Delta
d. Alpha
ANS: A
5. True/False. Gold Standards have the lowest diagnostic accuracy.
ANS: False
6. A high sensitivity tells you that, in most cases, the test will:
a. Identify someone with an injury or illness
b. Identify someone who does not have the injury or illness
c. Identify someone who is healthy
d. Sensitivity will not help us
ANS: A
7. In trying to incorporate the literature into clinical practice, what is the best way to keep up
with current research?
a. Try to read it all.
b. Take 2 days off per month and do nothing but read articles.
c. Use a clinical challenge to look at the literature and incorporate published findings.
d. Attend one professional meeting per year.
, ANS: C
8. Which of the following choices represents the highest reliability?
a. 0.83
b. 0.91
c. 0.29
d. 0.50
ANS: B
9. True/False. Clinical practice guidelines are recommendations that guide the care of a patient
with specific conditions.
ANS: True
,Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When the relative level of applied stress falls below the maintenance level, which of the
following occurs?
a. Atrophy
b. Hypertrophy
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypoplasia
ANS: A
Rationale: Atrophy can be seen after long-term immobilization when a cast is removed. One
will note that the muscle girth of the immobilized portion of the limb is significantly less than
that of the healthy limb.
2. During a biceps curl, what muscle is the antagonist?
a. Biceps
b. Triceps
c. Flextor Digitorum
d. Palmaris Longus
ANS: B
3. Short Answer. Draw each of the Salter-Harris fractures.
4. True/False. Lack of flexibility may be contributing cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis
ANS: False
5. Which of the following forces is primarily responsible for a dislocation?
a. Tension
b. Compression
c. Torsion
d. Shear
ANS: D
6. Which of the following is not palpable unless inflamed?
a. Bursa
b. Ligament
c. Tendon
d. Bone
ANS: A
7. Which type of fracture is reserved for prepubescent boys and girls?
a. Diaphyseal
b. Metaphyseal
c. Epiphyseal
d. Osteochondral
, ANS: C
8. Which of the following fractures occur due to cumulative microtrauma?
a. Transverse
b. Stress
c. Oblique
d. Avulsion
ANS: B
9. Which of the following nerve injuries is the least serious?
a. Neurotmesis
b. Wallerian degeneration
c. Neurapraxia
d. Axonotmesis
ANS: C
10. True/False. Calcification on a radiographic examination appears immediately after initial
injury.
ANS: False