HESI Compass Comprehensive Exit
Exam (2025) comprehensive questions
and verified answers) ACTUAL EXAM
2025 TEST!! REAL EXAM AGRADE
1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
B. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 2 days
C. Decreased peripheral edema
D. Clear lung sounds
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) is a serious side effect of furosemide and
can lead to arrhythmias.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first following shift report?
A. Client with a urinary catheter draining clear yellow urine
B. Client scheduled for a colonoscopy in 3 hours
C. Client with new onset confusion and a low-grade fever
D. Client requesting PRN pain medication
Rationale: New confusion and fever may indicate infection or delirium; this is a
potential change in condition requiring priority assessment.
,3. A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes how to manage blood sugar
during illness. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I'll skip my insulin if I can't eat."
B. "I'll check my blood glucose every 2-4 hours when I’m sick."
C. "I'll only take my insulin if my blood sugar is over 300 mg/dL."
D. "I don't need to notify the provider unless I vomit for 3 days."
Rationale: Frequent glucose monitoring is necessary during illness, as blood
sugars may rise due to stress hormones even if eating is reduced.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which lab value
indicates the medication is having a therapeutic effect?
A. INR of 1.0
B. INR of 1.5
C. INR of 2.5
D. INR of 4.5
Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for most indications is 2.0–3.0.
5. The nurse receives a client's ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24
mEq/L. What condition does this indicate?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: The low pH and elevated PaCO₂ indicate respiratory acidosis.
6. Which behavior by a client on suicide precautions requires immediate
intervention?
A. Refusing to eat breakfast
B. Giving away personal belongings to other clients
, C. Sleeping excessively
D. Refusing group therapy
Rationale: Giving away possessions is a warning sign of suicidal intent.
7. A nurse is caring for a client post thyroidectomy. Which finding requires
immediate action?
A. Hoarseness
B. Stridor
C. Sore throat
D. Neck discomfort
Rationale: Stridor suggests airway obstruction or laryngeal nerve damage and is
an emergency.
8. Which of the following tasks can be safely delegated to a UAP?
A. Measuring urine output
B. Administering oral medications
C. Assessing pain level
D. Teaching incentive spirometry
Rationale: Measuring output is within the scope of a UAP; other tasks require
nursing judgment or licensure.
9. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Titrate oxygen to maintain saturation >98%
C. Maintain oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
D. Increase oxygen to 10 L/min with dyspnea
Rationale: High O₂ levels can suppress the hypoxic respiratory drive in COPD
patients.
Exam (2025) comprehensive questions
and verified answers) ACTUAL EXAM
2025 TEST!! REAL EXAM AGRADE
1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
B. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 2 days
C. Decreased peripheral edema
D. Clear lung sounds
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) is a serious side effect of furosemide and
can lead to arrhythmias.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first following shift report?
A. Client with a urinary catheter draining clear yellow urine
B. Client scheduled for a colonoscopy in 3 hours
C. Client with new onset confusion and a low-grade fever
D. Client requesting PRN pain medication
Rationale: New confusion and fever may indicate infection or delirium; this is a
potential change in condition requiring priority assessment.
,3. A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes how to manage blood sugar
during illness. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I'll skip my insulin if I can't eat."
B. "I'll check my blood glucose every 2-4 hours when I’m sick."
C. "I'll only take my insulin if my blood sugar is over 300 mg/dL."
D. "I don't need to notify the provider unless I vomit for 3 days."
Rationale: Frequent glucose monitoring is necessary during illness, as blood
sugars may rise due to stress hormones even if eating is reduced.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which lab value
indicates the medication is having a therapeutic effect?
A. INR of 1.0
B. INR of 1.5
C. INR of 2.5
D. INR of 4.5
Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for most indications is 2.0–3.0.
5. The nurse receives a client's ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24
mEq/L. What condition does this indicate?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: The low pH and elevated PaCO₂ indicate respiratory acidosis.
6. Which behavior by a client on suicide precautions requires immediate
intervention?
A. Refusing to eat breakfast
B. Giving away personal belongings to other clients
, C. Sleeping excessively
D. Refusing group therapy
Rationale: Giving away possessions is a warning sign of suicidal intent.
7. A nurse is caring for a client post thyroidectomy. Which finding requires
immediate action?
A. Hoarseness
B. Stridor
C. Sore throat
D. Neck discomfort
Rationale: Stridor suggests airway obstruction or laryngeal nerve damage and is
an emergency.
8. Which of the following tasks can be safely delegated to a UAP?
A. Measuring urine output
B. Administering oral medications
C. Assessing pain level
D. Teaching incentive spirometry
Rationale: Measuring output is within the scope of a UAP; other tasks require
nursing judgment or licensure.
9. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Titrate oxygen to maintain saturation >98%
C. Maintain oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
D. Increase oxygen to 10 L/min with dyspnea
Rationale: High O₂ levels can suppress the hypoxic respiratory drive in COPD
patients.
