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College of Family Physicians of Canada (CFPC) Certification Examination Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025|2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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College of Family Physicians of Canada (CFPC) Certification Examination Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025|2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

Institution
College Of Family Physicians Of Canada Cer
Course
College of Family Physicians of Canada Cer

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College of Family Physicians of Canada
(CFPC) Certification Examination
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2025|2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf


1. A 65-year-old man with COPD presents with increasing dyspnea,
purulent sputum, and wheezing. Best initial management?
a) Start inhaled corticosteroids
b) Admit to ICU immediately
c) Prescribe antibiotics and oral prednisone
d) Switch to long-acting muscarinic antagonist
Exacerbations with purulent sputum require antibiotics and
prednisone; inhaled steroids are not first-line for acute exacerbation.

2. A 24-year-old woman has a positive urine pregnancy test. She has no
comorbidities. First prenatal lab to order?

, a) Chest X-ray
b) Blood type and antibody screen
c) Serum ferritin
d) Thyroid function test
Blood type and antibody screen is essential to identify Rh
incompatibility risk.

3. A 3-year-old presents with fever, barky cough, and stridor at rest. Best
immediate management?
a) Oral antihistamines
b) Nebulized epinephrine and dexamethasone
c) Azithromycin
d) Albuterol inhaler
Croup with stridor at rest requires nebulized epinephrine and
corticosteroid.

4. A 72-year-old woman with diabetes has persistent albuminuria despite
optimal BP control. Best additional agent?
a) Thiazide diuretic
b) ACE inhibitor
c) Beta-blocker
d) Loop diuretic
ACE inhibitors are first-line for diabetic nephropathy with
albuminuria.

,5. A 16-year-old girl presents with secondary amenorrhea. Pregnancy
test negative. Which initial test is most appropriate?
a) MRI of pituitary
b) Serum TSH and prolactin
c) Endometrial biopsy
d) Pelvic laparoscopy
TSH and prolactin are first-line tests to evaluate secondary
amenorrhea.

6. A 45-year-old woman has hot flashes disrupting sleep. She has no
contraindications. Most effective therapy?
a) SSRIs
b) Clonidine
c) Hormone replacement therapy
d) Gabapentin
HRT is most effective for vasomotor menopausal symptoms if no
contraindications.

7. A 4-month-old infant has a fever of 39°C, irritability, and bulging
fontanelle. Next best step?
a) CT scan of head
b) Lumbar puncture
c) Chest X-ray
d) Oral antibiotics and discharge

, Bulging fontanelle and fever suggest meningitis; LP confirms
diagnosis.

8. A 64-year-old man with atrial fibrillation has CHADS2-VASc score of 4.
Best management?
a) Aspirin only
b) Oral anticoagulation
c) No therapy
d) Dual antiplatelet therapy
Score ≥2 requires anticoagulation for stroke prevention.

9. A 29-year-old woman with depression has been on SSRI for 6 weeks
with partial improvement. Best next step?
a) Switch to antipsychotic
b) Stop medication
c) Increase dose of SSRI
d) Immediate referral to psychiatry
If partial response after 6 weeks, optimize SSRI dose before
switching.

10. A 55-year-old man presents with sudden chest pain radiating to
back, unequal arm BP. Best diagnostic test?
a) CT angiogram of chest
b) Troponin
c) Echocardiogram

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Institution
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Course
College of Family Physicians of Canada Cer

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