(CMA) Certified Medical Assistant Final Exam TEST BANK- Question and Answers [100% Correct] 2025/2026 VERSION

(CMA) Certified Medical Assistant Final Exam TEST BANK- Question and Answers [100% Correct] 2025/2026 VERSION Which term describes statistical data like birth dates, addresses, and occupations used to identify individuals? A. Consumer B. Demographic C. Template D. Matrix B. Demographic Which of the following shows unavailable times that cannot be scheduled for patient appointments? A. Pegboard B. Daysheet C. Journal D. Matrix D. Matrix What device transforms printed material into a format that can be interpreted by a computer? A. Mouse B. Scanner C. Printer D. Monitor B. Scanner 1 The approach that prioritizes being sensitive to a patient's needs and reactions throughout their medical journey is known as: A. Sympathy B. Sarcasm C. Empathy D. Malediction C. Empathy When accommodating appointments for minor emergencies, which strategy is commonly used? A. Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule B. Advise the patient to call "911" C. Have special evening appointments for emergencies D. Refer emergency cases to the nearest paramedic station A. Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule Which scheduling method books patients with similar issues consecutively? A. Clustering B. Stream C. Wave D. Modified-wave A. Clustering If a medical assistant needs to order boxes of 21-gauge needles for weekly use and the clinic orders supplies once every four weeks, how many boxes should be ordered? A. 18 B. 16 C. 4 D. 12 B 16 2 When a medical assistant makes an error in the medical record, the proper way to correct it is: A. Obliterate the incorrect entry B. Draw a line through the text and write the new information above the old C. Draw a line through the incorrect entry, write the correct information above it, date and sign the new entry D. Shred the page with the incorrect entry C. Draw a line through the incorrect entry, write the correct information above it, date and sign the new entry Which type of mail provides evidence that a letter has been received by the recipient? A. Bulk B. Priority C. First class D. Certified D. Certified When a physician decides to stop treating a patient who does not follow medical advice, the medical assistant should: A. Telephone the patient to explain the situation B. Refer the patient to another physician the next time an appointment is requested C. Send a certified letter of formal withdrawal to the patient D. Send the original medical records to the patient C. Send a certified letter of formal withdrawal to the patient In certain states, a minor may refuse medical treatment under specific circumstances. Which situation allows a 16-year-old minor to refuse chemotherapy? A. Being an emancipated minor B. Being declared mentally incompetent C. Being abandoned by her parents 3 D. Under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur A. Being an emancipated minor What is the purpose of HIPAA security standards? A. To maintain office employee files B. To protect insurance premium details C. To secure paper-based patient files D. To safeguard the confidentiality of electronic patient information D. To safeguard the confidentiality of electronic patient information When a family member asks for information about a patient's treatment, the medical assistant should: A. Provide only the information authorized by the patient B. Share all the details with the family member C. Ignore the relative and walk away D. Assure the relative that everything will be fine A. Provide only the information authorized by the patient Which legal issue is most likely to result in a physician's license being revoked or suspended? A. Felony conviction B. Civil suit C. Subpoena D. Misdemeanor conviction A. Felony conviction What method does HIPAA require for submitting Medicare claims? A. Through claims processing centers B. Through electronic data exchange C. By paper CMS 1500 forms 4 D. By facsimile transmission B. Through electronic data exchange Providing free or reduced-fee medical care to a physician’s colleagues, family, or staff is known as: A. Professional courtesy B. Contingent fee C. Fee schedule D. Account receivable A. Professional courtesy When a medical assistant dispenses the wrong medication from the physician’s supply, it is considered: A. Malfeasance B. Misfeasance C. Nonfeasance D. Duty A. Malfeasance What does the Good Samaritan Act protect healthcare providers from when rendering first aid? A. Loss of credentials B. Civil and criminal liability C. Contracting diseases D. Accidental injury B. Civil and criminal liability Which of the following is NOT an element required to prove negligence? A. Duty B. Defamation C. Direct cause 5 D. Damages B. Defamation Which action by a medical assistant would be an example of illegally practicing medicine? A. Interviewing a patient B. Giving advice about a patient's condition C. Scheduling a patient appointment D. Taking vital signs B. Giving advice about a patient's condition A patient’s implied consent typically covers which type of procedure? A. Blood test B. Lumbar puncture C. Organ donation D. Breast biopsy A. Blood test Which Latin phrase means "the thing speaks for itself" and applies when negligence can be inferred from the injury? A. Non compus mentis B. Quid quo pro C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Corpus jusis C. Res ipsa loquitur When a different surgeon is substituted during an operation without the patient’s knowledge or consent, it is referred to as: A. Legal waiver B. Contractual relationship 6 C. Reparation D. Ghost surgery D. Ghost surgery Receiving the vaccine for the COVID-19 virus provides: a.Natural Acquired Immunity. b.Artificial Acquired Active Immunity. c.Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity. d.Artificially Acquired Passive Immunity. The mixture of food and gastric juices is called: . . dases. . B A patient diagnosed with epistaxis has: a.a bloody nose. b.a bee sting. allergy. d.a vaginal discharge. B A Which of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes? a.Leukemia b.Thrombocytopenia c.Anemia d.Polycythemia C 7 Muscles are attached to bones by: a. ns. ents. s. B Where is chyme produced? a.Liver b.Pancreas c.Heart d.Stomach D The outer ear includes the: um. ea. chian tube. canal. D The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is: sis. osis. sis. ylosis. B The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called: nctiva. elium. 8 mal apparatus. . A The major function of the circulatory system is: ification. portation. ction. ge. B Where are the sublingual glands located? a.Beside the esophagus. b.Beneath the mucous membrane. c.In the tissue of the labia. d.Around the abdomen B Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at: ption. . ty. ause. C The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery? a.Aorta b.Carotid c.Coronary d.Pulmonary A What is the disease, that is also known as inflammatory bowel disease, that often affects the end of the small intestine? 9 a.Colitis b.Cholelithiasis c.Diverticulitis d.Crohn's disease D The ventral cavity refers to the: al cavity. l cavity. ior body cavity. rior body cavity. C What laboratory test reports the average glucose levels for the past 2 to 3 months? a.Glucose tolerance test b.Daily glucose monitoring c.Daily urinalysis d.A1C D What are the major organs in the digestive system? a.Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anal canal. b.Mouth, teeth, throat, stomach, liver, gallbladder and the intestines and anus. c.Salivary glands, teeth, tongue, stomach, pancreas, liver, and peritoneum, and anus. d.Teeth, tongue, esophagus, stomach, diaphragm, gut, and anal canal. The largest bone of the body is the: . . s. . D A 10 Growth hormone is produced in the: s. id. eas. tary. D The hormone responsible for ovulation is: a.FSH-Follicle Stimulating Hormone. b.TSH-Thyroid Stimulating Hormone. c.LH-Luteinizing Hormone. d.ACTH-Adrenocorticotropic Hormones. C The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon, in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin: a.A. b.E. c.K. d.D. C When gastric contents leak into the abdominal cavity from perforation of the stomach, bowel, intestine, gallbladder, or appendix it is called: nephritis. ing. onitis. nal ulcer. C The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is: n. 11 in. c.CCK. n. D The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is: in. in. in. gen. B What test can detect down's syndrome during pregnancy? a.Amniocenteses b.Complete blood count c.Spinal tap d.CT scan A The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the: harynx. arynx. gopharynx. x. A The study of the stomach and the intestine is ology. oenterology. ology. ogastrology. B 12 The inflammation of the pancreas is: eatis. eatitis. eatin. eatic. B The medical term for inflammation of the liver is: itis. omegaly. osis. es. A A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called: cele. lingual. stensosis. uretheral A "Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges", defines the term: ism. itis. ysm. iosclerosis. C Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as: enitis. denitis. den. 13 angitis. B The abbreviation for "prescription" is: a.Fx. b.Bx. c.Rx. d.Tx. C The prefix "ad" means: move away from. add to. d. al of. B What is the first portion of the small intestine? a.Ileum b.Jejunum c.Cecum d.Duodenum D When analyzing a medical term, where is the best word part to begin analyzing? a.Beginning b.Middle c.Root d.End D Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils? a.Tonsilitis 14 b.Tonsillitis c.Toncilitis d.Toncillitis B The suffix meaning "inflammation" is y d.Desis C An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is a. tition. c.Eructation. es. D Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum? a.Proctalgia b.Proctology c.Proctologist d.Proctoplasty C In a patient's progress note you see that the physician has used the term "necrosis" regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to: hy tissue. tissue. ng tissue. ted tissue. B 15 What is Conjunctivitis? a.Farsightedness caused by loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye, occurring typically in middle and old age. b.A condition where the eye's optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. c.Inflammation of the transparent covering of the eye because of bacterial infection or allergic reaction. d.Astigmatism is a condition in which your eye is not completely round. he term "myotomy" means incision into: a.a tendon. b.a muscle. eardrum. spinal cord. B The combining form that means "red" is: o. . ro. o. C Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error? a.Entering all diagnoses on the claim b.Using "rule out" diagnosis c.Recording one item per line d.Using both ICD-10 and CPT codes B C This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities. a.TRICARE Prime b.TRICARE Extra 16 c.TRICARE Standard d.CHAMPVA D Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services. a.Indemnity plan b.Health maintenance organization plan c.Self-insured plan d.Managed care plan Medicare Part B covers: ription drugs. A exams related to prescribing glasses. tic surgery. ription medical equipment. D Drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is: ~Medicare Advantage (formerly Medicare + Choice).} a.Medicare Part A. b.Medicare Part B. c.Medicare Part D C This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization and surgical benefits end. a.Disability b.Major medical c.Special risk d.Long-term care B 17 Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule? a.PPO b.Medicaid c.Medicare d.Capitated D An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is: a.934.6. b.99211. c.J0540. d.V72.3. C To comply with Medicare guidelines, the physician must write off which of the following charges if not covered by Medigap? a.Coinsurance b.Deductible c.Prevailing charges d.Disallowed charges D Which of the following terms describes calling an insurance carrier to determine if medical procedures are covered under a patient's health insurance policy? a.Recertification b.Precertification c.Capitation d.Referral B The physician has just arrived, and several patients are waiting to be seen. Which of the following patients should the physician see first? a.A patient for a blood pressure check 18 b.A patient scheduled for an in office minor surgical procedure c.A walk-in patient complaining of chest pain d.A walk-in patient with a swollen ankle C Immunization records should be kept in the medical office for how long? a.5 years b.7 years c.10 years d.Permanently D Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.(1) 06 14 06(2) 06 06 06(3) 06 05 06(4) 05 01 06 a.(1), (2), (3), (4) b.(4), (3), (2), (1) c.(2), (3), (1), (4) d.(4), (2), (3), (1) B Which of the following is the most common format of letter styles that is used in the medical office? a.Simplified b.Full block c.Modified block d.Modified block with indented paragraphs Which of the following is a type of tickler file? a.Chronological b.Alphabetical c.Numerical d.Subject A B 19 For a multipage letter, the medical assistant should use: rhead for all pages. rhead for the first page only. paper for all pages. d.3 in margins and single spacing. B When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the: ce. nty. pt. ng slip. D When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to: mand the patient. the doctor call the patient. the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database. nothing—the patient obviously does not want to see the doctor. C Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area? a.Be assertive in calming the patient down b.Sit down next to the patient and gently pat his or her back to soothe the patient c.Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area d.Ignore the patient. When ignored, patients will stop unacceptable behavior C Which of the following patient charts would be placed first in an alphabetic filing system? a.Mellow, Jack 20 b.Mellow, Jan c.Mellow, Jane d.Mellow, J.D A To prevent backpain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended? a.Get close to the object b.Bend the knees when lowering the object c.Keep feet together d.Tuck the chin in slightly C Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician? a.Susan Martin, Pediatrician b.Dr. Susan Martin, MD c.Doctor Susan Martin d.Susan Martin, MD D Which of the following words is NOT required in the heading of a memorandum? a.Date b.Subject c.Copy d.From C Which of the following is the primary benefit of numeric filing? a.Less storage space is required b.Color coding is not required c.Patient confidentiality is preserved d.Easier to file C 21 The justification of behavior with socially acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, "I dieted strictly all day; therefore, it's okay to eat a couple of candy bars later in the evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as: ssion. acement. nsation. nalization. D Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross' stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages? a.Depression, anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance b.Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance c.Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d.Denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance C Self-esteem, prestige, love, safety, and survival are components of the humanistic hierarchy of needs developed by which of the following psychologists? a.Jung b.Maslow c.Erikson d.Freud B Who created physiological ideas such as the id, ego, and superego? a.Jung b.Freud c.Maslow d.Erikson B The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called: 22 ing. cting. ting. fication. C Which of the following is the most effective way to educate new patients about office policies? a.Distribute office procedure manuals b.Email new guidelines c.Send out a newsletter d.Distribute patient information booklet D Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the "Hierarchy of Needs". Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top? a.Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization b.Physiological needs, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Love and belonging, Self-actualization c.Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Safety and Security, Self-actualization d.Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self actualization D Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of: rity. tiality. uency. wledgment. A According to the theory of death and dying, a patient with terminal cancer who is beginning to deal with the fact that he or she will die is in which of the following stages of dying? a.Acceptance 23 b.Denial c.Bargaining d.Anger A Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT: ng over a sterile field should be kept to a minimum. le team members do not need to face each other. s keep the sterile field in your view. d. nonsterile persons or items should never cross the sterile field. B According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with: . . . . A When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is: cross over the entire surgical area. and down the across the surgical area. lar starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area. lar from the outside edges into the incision area. C The cleansing process used to remove debris such as blood, tissue, and other body fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called: is. fection. ation. 24 lization. C Monica is responsible for sterilizing instruments. She places a biological sterilization indicator into the autoclave to test the effectiveness of the sterilization process. What information is provided by the biological sterilization indicator? a.Maximum temperature reached during the sterilization process b.Presence of microorganisms in the items that were sterilized c.Highest pressure reached during the sterilization process d.The presence of spores in the autoclave D What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash? a.Friction and running warm water b.Antibacterial soap and hot water c.Length of time spent and type of soap d.Position of hands and temperature of water A What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines? a.CDC b.EPA c.CMS d.OSHA D When performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned: the elbows. with the elbows. the elbows. the waist. C 25 Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must: the disinfection solution in an open container to allow evaporation. the solution on the exam tables for 15 minutes in order to kill spores and viruses. e the bleach solution with boiling water. re the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container, allow recommended contact time, and change after recommended period of expiration Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT: es. rs. ets. is. D D While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill? a.Wear personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container b.Spray the spill with a strong detergent and allow the table to dry c.Wipe up the spill with paper towels, spray disinfectant on the table every 15 minutes for 30 minutes, and discard the paper towels in a waste basket d.Wipe up the spill with soapy cloth towels, rinse the table thoroughly with water, and discard the towels in the contaminated-laundry bin A The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is: fection. lization. ization. ng. B 26 The third level of infection control is: fection. lization. ization. ng. B The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to: nt contamination. the items to dry. se the steam. the pressure build-up. Sterilization is the: uction of all microbial life. uction of pathogens. ul cleaning of instruments al of blood and body fluids. B A Items should be removed from the autoclave: iately when the autoclave shuts off. all items in the autoclave have dried completely. c.5 mins before the autoclave is finished. need to wait 5 mins after the autoclave shuts off. B Which of the following are applied to the outside of the material used to wrap instruments or supplies for the autoclave that lets you know when an item or items have been sterilized? a.Thermometers b.Markers 27 c.Sterilization indicators d.Labels C The destruction of all microorganisms is known as: fection. ization. c.Universal Precaution. lization. D The most effective method of sterilization is: ng. cals. fectants. laving. D Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile? a.Disinfection b.Sterilization c.Asepsis d.Sanitization B When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be: waist level. waist level. the level of the heart. tly below the level of the heart. Forceps are used to: C 28 ct tissue. drapes. tissue. incisions. C What instrument is used to examine the interior structures of the eye? a.Otoscope b.AudioScope c.Ophthalmoscope d.Intraocularscopec C What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue? a.Cutting and dissecting instruments b.Dilators c.Retractors d.Probes A A hemostat is used to: e drapes. ct tissue. ol bleeding. fer instruments C The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the: . . a. m. A 29 Quality control is important because: assures validity and reliability of the testing. cleans the machine to keep it operational. defines the normal ranges for testing. determines the final test result. Calibration: A ts errors caused by laboratory equipment not working properly. a substance that is being identified in a laboratory test. a solution that is used to monitor a test system. ts reagents added to testing specimens. A Why did Congress pass the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) in 1988? a.To ensure payment for laboratory testing b.To ensure safety of laboratory workers c.To ensure accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of testing d.To ensure accreditation of laboratories C Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis? a.Physical, physical, random b.Physical, chemical, microscopic c.Physical and chemical only d.Random and physical only B The concept "Universal precautions" refers to: the same precautions as everyone else. ing all human blood may carry bloodborne pathogens. 30 gloves every time you make any contact with a patient. ing all human blood and some body fluids may carry infectious or bloodborne pathogens. D When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked: a.0mm. b.10mm. c.20mm. d.50mm. A The major components of a routine urinalysis are: cal, visual, and culture. cal, chemical, and microscopic. l, analytic, and microscopic. cal, analytical, and chemical. B Which of the following sutures does not require removal from the body? a.Nylon b.Silk c.Gut d.Cotton C What is a fenestrated sterile drape? a.A drape used to cover the sterile tray after it is set up. b.A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed. c.A drape that has anesthetic medication. d.A drape that is used to dress a wound. B 31 Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument? a.Scalpel b.Speculum c.Forceps d.Hemostat B When caring and handling surgical instruments which of the following can prolong the life span and ensure proper function of the instrument? a.Sharp instruments can be mixed with other instruments b.Rinse blood and body secretions off after allowing it to dry on the instrument c.Prevent instruments from being piled and getting entangled with one another d.Using instruments in a way other than their intended purpose does not affect their life span For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT: hor. ne. c.4% chlorhexidine gluconate. one-iodine. B Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT: e cleansing of the wound with bactericidal solution (i.e., povidone-iodine solution). ing the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine). g a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing. C C g attention for fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area. Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education? a.Cleanse each side of the urinary meatus with a front-to-back motion from the pubic to the anus 32 b.On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe c.Allow the initial flow of urine to pass into the toilet flushing the opening of the urethra d.Fill the container halfway B All of the following information must be given to the patient in order for them to have received informed consent EXCEPT: e and purpose of the recommended procedures. explanation of risks involved in the procedure. native treatments or procedures. ns to delay the procedure. D In order to help patients learn and retain information the medical assistant can do all of the following EXCEPT: it short and be specific. terms that the patient can understand. on the 'why.' t and reinforce important information. C Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following EXCEPT: pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms. ness of breath (SOB). ng of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum. ness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes. C When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis? a.Avoid compression stockings b.If anticoagulants have been prescribed, eat foods high in vitamin K in small amounts c.Avoid sitting still for long periods 33 d.Walk around several times during the day or move the legs frequently C Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following EXCEPT: pants tucked into socks and long-sleeved shirts when walking in wooded or grassy areas. insect repellants that contain DEET. stand that deer ticks are no bigger than the head of a pin or a grain of pepper. e a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers. D When obtaining an accurate weight on an infant the medical assistant should be sure to do all the following EXCEPT: a dry diaper on the patient or remove the diaper. e all clothing from the patient. the infant on their stomach for safety. a hand over the infant for safety. C Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common cause of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are: es. tes. c.E. coli. rolytes. C Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus? a.Due to lack of insulin b.Type 1 c.Type 1A and Type 1B d.Type 2 D The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include: 34 uria and glycosuria. glycemia and polyuria. t gain. t loss. B The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of: a.20-40 beats per minute. b.40-55 beats per minute. c.60-100 beats per minute. d.100-110 beats per minute. C A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as: aneurysm. b.a seizure. alization. ration. B The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is: teal. ial. id. l. D To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for: a.10 seconds and multiply by 6. b.15 seconds and multiply by 4. c.30 seconds and multiply by 2. d.60 seconds. D 35 A marked drop in blood pressure is found with: . t. ria. tension. A Cardinal signs are also known as: t and weight. oximeter. pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations. n saturation. C What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope? a.Popliteal b.Radial c.Apical d.Brachial C he provider states that a patient is hypertensive. Which blood pressure would they be referencing? a.140/90 b.120/80 c.90/60 d.110/70 A A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table? a.Prone b.Supine 36 c.Fowler's d.Sims' C The method used to perform a breast examination is: tion. ssion. ltation. ration. An afebrile patient is: fever. A g a heart attack. ut fever. g a stroke. C Cheyne-Stokes describes a: oscope. cal instrument. of pulse. of respiration. D The angle for a subcutaneous injection is: a.15 degrees. b.25 degrees. c.45 degrees. d.90 degrees. C Which statement is considered to be closed-ended? 37 a.Do you have a headache? b.Describe the pain you are having in your head. c.Describe the abdominal pain you are having. d.Tell me how you hurt your back. A The knee-chest position is used for examination of the: r spine. en. er. m. D The correct site for an adult IM injection is the: us medius. us minimus. us maximus. ocnemius. A The "Snellen Chart" is used to test: xes. ng. . . D A drug used to relieve pain is an: ote. iotic. esic. epressant. C 38 Sarah has been given the following physician order: Give antibiotic 1 gram orally now. The drug that is available is a 250mg per capsule antibiotic. How many capsules should the patient receive? a.0.125 b.0.25 c.2 d.4 D Dr. Thompson has ordered penicillin for her patient. Sarah has prepared the injection and is instructing the patient to remain in the medical office for 30 minutes post injection so that she can monitor the patient. Sarah warns the patient that the most common adverse reaction to penicillin is: a. with diarrhea. hea. allergic reaction. D Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient's medical record includes the: on date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered). of the last outbreak of diseases that the vaccine prevents. ry in which the vaccine was developed. es of over vaccination. A Nancy has been given the following physician order: Give 500 mg of a medication intramuscularly now. The drug that is available is 1000mg/1mL. The amount of the drug that Nancy should draw up is: a.0.5 mL. b.1 mL. c.2 mL. 39 d.2.5 mL. A Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the: id muscle and/or gluteal muscle. ior forearm and the upper back. forearm and the thigh. thigh and/or the middle of the back. B Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the ic nerve. l and ulnar nerves. cle. er trochanter. B While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? a.Change the needle angle b.Continue the injection c.Insert the needle deeper d.Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over D Which of the following types of intramuscular injections is recommended for the administration of irritating or staining medications? a.Z-track b.Subcutaneous c.Intradermal d.Intramuscular A 40 Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Tim is receiving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects? a.Hypoglycemic reaction b.Malignant hyperthermia c.Malignant hypertension d.Severe hyperglycemia A Two tablespoons of medication are equal to: a.15 cc. b.1 mL. c.20 cc. d.30 mL. D Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug? a.Intradermal b.Intramuscular c.Intravenous d.Subcutaneous C For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given: the right route. the right time. the right dose. the right place. B Laura's patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relatively safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category: a.Category A b.Category B 41 c.Category C d.Category D A A syringe marked with U-100 would be used for administering which of the following? a.Allergy testing b.Chemotherapy c.Insulin d.Tuberculin testing C Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty? a.An angiogram and angioplasty are the same procedure b.Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue c.Angioplasty is used to diagnose heart disorders d.Angioplasty is a small battery operated device B Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality? a.Massage b.Whirlpool c.Diathermy d.Immobilization D When preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist's office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of: ic constipation and diarrhea. axis. pain. er control. A Sensitivity testing in microbiology is performed to: 42 for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen. for reactions to dyes. for mistakes in specimen collection. ct mistakes in specimen collection. The most common blood type is: a.A b.B c.AB d.O+ D A Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism? a.Presence of normal flora b.Immune response c.Inflammation d.Phagocytosis B A normal color of urine is: d. . e. . B Of the following, what is the most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture? a.Standing at a counter b.Sitting in a chair c.Sitting on a stool d.Standing at the examination table B 43 The normal specific gravity of urine, which measures the ability of kidneys to concentrate urine, ranges from: a.1.000 to 1.005 b.1.010 to 1.030 c.1.005 to 1.010 d.1.010 to 1.020 B The "universal donor" has blood type: a.A + b.B - c.AB + d.O - D A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of: a.FSH. b.PTH. c.HCG. d.TSH. C Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases? a.Ringworm b.Gonorrhea c.Acne/boils d.Tuberculosis C What should be done if a patient reports intense pain after a needle is inserted into the patient's arm? a.Hurry and finish drawing your blood specimen b.Remove the needle the immediately and treat the patient appropriately 44 c.Remove the needle and then ask the patient if you can redraw a specimen in the same arm. d.Just reassure the patient and finish drawing the specimen Which type of bleeding is easiest to control? a.Arterial b.Venous c.Capillary d.Diastolic C Darkish brown urine may be an indication of: tes. tion. itis. uria. C In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is: arm (RA). arm (LA). leg (RL). leg (LL). C The basic ECG has how many leads? a.6 b.8 c.10 d.12 D B What typically does NOT cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram? 45 a.Electricity b.Movement c.Muscle tremors d.Relaxed patient D When preparing a patient for an ECG, leads should be placed: the costals. ere on the upper chest. the intercostal spaces. the sternum C Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary: six months. a year. two years. needed. B After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim? a.Apply direct pressure to the site b.Wash the area and apply antibiotic ointment c.Apply indirect pressure to the site d.Check the wound for objects to remove A If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should: the patient by the heels to safety. the patient over your shoulder. the patient and try to get the patient to wake and walk. the patient by the head to safety. A 46 Mrs. Smith suspects her child has ingested corrosive poison because the child had been playing in their shed and complained of feeling sick. She brought the child to the doctor's office quite concerned. What is the next step regarding treatment? a.Gather as much information as possible from the mother about the products in the shed b.Induce vomiting immediately c.Call the poison control center d.Administer activated charcoal A When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean? a.Point, assess, squeeze, and squirt b.Pin, aim, squirt, and sweep c.Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep d.Pull, assert, squirt, and stop C What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor? a.Run to the victim and start the assessment b.Go to your car and get a first aid kit c.Assess the scene before going any further d.Go and wash your hands and get a first aid book What is the proper treatment for syncope? C a.Place the patient in a chair and lean the head backward. b.Place the patient in a supine position with the legs elevated. c.Administer water and cold compresses to the neck and forehead. d.Place the patient in a prone position with the arms above their head. A second-degree burn would appear as: B 47 , edematous, wet, shiny, or blistered. ery tissue, white, no blisters. and dry with no blisters. y charred tissue damage. A What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness? a.Consult your first aid book b.Allow the patient to leave the area c.Have the patient lie down d.Give the patient fluids C Nutrients absorbed by the body in the small intestine include: hydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, and water. , sugars, water, trace elements and protein. in, lipids, sugars, minerals, vitamins, and fat-soluble vitamins. , sugar, vitamins, fats, proteins, glucose, and enzymes. Where is the popliteal artery located? a.Upper arm b.Medial thigh c.Upper gluteal d.Posterior knee D A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is: open fracture. b.a compound fracture. c.a comminuted fracture. d.a greenstick fracture. C A 48 What is the medical term for "baby" teeth? a.Deciduous b.Small teeth c.Fake Teeth d.Bicuspid A The urinary system consists of: kidneys, urinary meatus, bladder, and the urethra. kidneys, two ureters, the urinary bladder, and the urethra. urinary bladder, two kidneys, two nephrons, and the urethra. urethra, two kidneys, ureter and bladder. B What is the test that may determine if you are at risk for infections? a.Hemoglobin b.Hematocrit c.CBC with differential d.Blood type C A hernia develops when: ation of the lining of the bowel occurs. is pressure in the alimentary tract. organ pushes through the wall. ing increases significantly. What is the process of ovum formation? a.Ovulation b.Oogenesis C 49 c.Fertilization d.Menarche B Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of: n. in. in A. in D. C Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation? a.Freezing. b.Incubation. c.Protection from light. d.Refrigeration. C What nervous system disorder involves the facial muscles being paralyzed? a.Epilepsy b.Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c.Bell's palsy d.Meningitis B The kidneys are located behind the: oneum. l column. er. um. A An abnormal scar formation is: 50 . d. ma. oma. B The origin of a muscle is: the muscle ends. s attached to a bone. the muscle begins. hed to another muscle. C What is the blood type that determines if people are universal recipients? a.Type A b.Type B c.Type AB d.Type O C Prostatic hypertrophy is: enlarged prostate. inflamed prostate. prostate. ased size of the prostate. D Permanent adult dentition consists of ___ teeth. a.32 b.30 c.20 d.18 A 51 The combining form "hist/o" means: . e. . e. B There are 4 parts of a tooth. Which part contains the nerves and causes the pain with a toothache? a.Enamel b.Dentin c.Pulp d.Root C Which of the following means pertaining to after meals? a.Postocular b.Post febrile c.Postictal d.Postprandial D Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population? a.Gastroenterologist b.Gynecologist c.Gerontologist d.Pathologist C The procedure that uses a caustic chemical, electric current, laser, and freezing is: lization. ion. 52 rization. nation. C Which of these terms describes age-related farsightedness? a.Myopia b.Hyperopia c.Presbyopia d.Amblyopia C All medication orders, progress notes, consultation reports, operative reports, and clinical orders are subject to: right to change as needed without authorization. release of records to family members who ask for a copy. "Do Not Use" List of abbreviations created by JCAHO. practice can determine what abbreviations are used. C What is it called when the food is travelling the wrong way and backs up to the esophagus? a.Gastritis b.GERD c.Cholangitis d.Colitis B The term "total permanent impairment" means that the patient: unable to work for one year. unable to perform duties for 30 days. return to full occupational duty. unable to perform previous occupational duties. D 53 A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient's co-insurance, and the allowed amounts. a.Explanation of benefits (EOB) b.Assignment of benefits (AOB) c.Third-party administrator (TPA) d.Participating provider (PAR) A Using diagnostic codes to show medical necessity for procedures performed is called: linkage. pairing. al necessity. dure pairing. A Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the: cian. nt. yer. ng agency. A An ICD-10-CM code may contain up to how many digits? a.Four b.Five c.Seven d.Nine C Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person's home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person's actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called: 54 insurance. al risk insurance. ility (loss of Income) protection. lity insurance. D Two insurance plans working together for coverage of the same person is called: medical. ce benefit plan. -payment plan. ination of benefits. D A scheduling method in which patients sign in and are seen on a first-come, first-served basis is known as which of the following? a.Open hours b.Double booking c.Stream d.Wave A What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record? a.Patient preferences regarding appointment times b.Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds c.Patient wait times in exam rooms d.Modified wave scheduling patterns The subject line of a letter appears: line below the date. line above the inside address. lines below the salutation. B 55 line of the body. C When a patient fails to keep an appointment, the medical assistant should: the appointment fee to the insurance company. ent the failed appointment in the patient's chart. the patient's nearest relative. e further treatments. B When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called: honorarium. inventory. c.a statement. itinerary. D The signature of the treating physician, medical assistant, or other healthcare provider on the medical record indicates that the record is accurate. This is called: rization. ption. ntication. sibility. A A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called: management. management. e. e booking. C 56 If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of: splitting. ance fraud. c.a misdemeanor. tion of confidentiality. A Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure? a.Assuring the patient that they will tolerate the procedure well b.Discussing the details of the procedure with the patient in order to obtain written consent for the surgical procedure c.Advising the patient about nonsurgical treatment alternatives d.Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file D According to the Patient Care Partnership (formerly the Patient's Bill of Rights), which of the following is a patient right? a.To be provided with sample medications b.To obtain information about a family member's care c.To expect continuity of care d.To participate in research without informed consent C Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment. a.Respondeat superior b.Reciprocity c.The Occupational Safety and Health Act d.Patient's Bill of Rights A Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records? 57 a.Prima facie b.Respondeat superior c.Subpoena duces tecum d.Res judicata C The justification of behavior with socially acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, "I dieted strictly all day; therefore, it's okay to eat a couple of candy bars later in the evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as: ssion. acement. nsation. nalization. D Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis? a.Kelly clamp b.Hemostat clamp c.Needle holder d.Thumb forceps B All of the following help ensure an accurate blood pressure reading EXCEPT: patient should empty their bladder first. blood pressure cuff is placed over the patient's sleeve. patient should keep their legs uncrossed. blood pressure cuff is the appropriate size for the patient's arm. B A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is: m. . 58 -catch. -stream. B Electrocauterization is used for: al of benign skin lesions. ing tissue. ating tissues or cells. ing a targeted area. A Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include: e holder, scissors, and forceps. e scissors and towel clamp. and tenaculum. el and retractor. A With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect? a.Calcium- milk and milk products, dark green, leafy vegetables, tofu, and soy products b.Potassium- bananas, raisins, green beans, broccoli, carrots, potatoes, meats, peanut butter c.Sodium- salt, milk and milk products, vegetables d.Iron- nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks D When explaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as: nting the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases). ng to determine the cause of a particular health problem (e.g. injecting antigen serum for allergy testing). ating that the drug does not cure but provides relief from pain or symptoms related to the disorder (e.g. the use of an antihistamine for allergy symptoms or narcotics for pain relief). ing and curing a disorder (e.g. antibiotics cure bacterial infections). A 59 You have just done a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in? a.Trendelenburg b.Lithotomy c.Sims' d.Semi-Fowler's A When instilling eye drops into the eye, where is the proper placement of the drops? a.At the outer corner of the eye b.Into the conjunctival sac by the lacrimal duct c.Into the center of the lower conjunctival sac d.Directly onto the eye C The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered? a.0.5 mL b.1.0 mL c.1.5 mL d.2.0 mL D Samantha is administering an infant's first dose of the Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine. What is the safest site for an intramuscular injection on the infant? a.Dorsogluteal b.Vastus lateralis c.Deltoid d.Abdomen B Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause: ion of the sample with tissue fluid. 60 nent nerve damage. sive bleeding. site to become cyanotic. Palpating the venipuncture site: A the healthcare worker determine the age of the patient. arteries out of the way for venipuncture. ibutes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein. the patient distracted prior to the venipuncture. The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to: C laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing. b.a period of time after a specimen has been centrifuged but before serum or plasma has been removed for testing. laboratory testing phase when the test results go back to the MD. d.a period of time when the MD will use the laboratory results to treat their patient. A 61