1
DLM(ASCP) EXAM ACTUAL EXAM REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|AGRADE
(FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT, OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT,
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT, QUALITY MANAGEMENT)
Which of the following analgesics operates by a non-opioid mechanism?
A. fentanyl
B. meperidine
C. codeine
D. hydromorphone
E. ketorolac - -answer--E. ketorolac
The answer is E. Rosving's sign is pain in the right lower quadrant when the left lower quadrant
is palpated. Rebound tenderness occurs with the release of pressure. The iliopsoas sign is pain
associated with thigh flexion. The obturator sign is pain that occurs with thigh rotation. All of
these signs are associated with appendicitis. Murphy's sign is cessation of inspiration during
palpation of the right upper quadrant and is associated with acute cholecystitis."
"In establishing a differential diagnosis of abdominal pain, which of the following is true?
A. Radiation of pain to the scapula is suggestive of acute hepatitis.
B. Cervical motion tenderness is a useful physical finding for differentiating women with or
without acute appendicitis.
C. In patients with sickle cell anemia who present with abdominal pain and diarrhea, shigellosis
should be a top consideration.
D. The onset of pain prior to the occurrence of nausea and vomiting is more often suggestive of
a surgical etiology.
E. Diverticulitis tends to cause pain in the right upper quadrant." - -answer--"D. The onset of
pain prior to the occurrence of nausea and vomiting is more often suggestive of a surgical
etiology.
, 2
The answer is D. Pain prior to nausea and vomiting is often suggestive of a surgical etiology of
the pain, such as small bowel obstruction. Cervical motion tenderness has been noted in up to
25% of women with acute appendicitis. Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to Salmonella
infections. Radiation of pain to the scapula is classically present in acute choleycystitis.
Diverticulitis pain is generally located in the left lower quadrant."
"Of the following pain patterns, which is the least likely associated with diagnosis of peptic ulcer
disease?
A. non-radiating, burning epigastric pain
B. pain that awakens a patient in the middle of the night
C. unrelenting pain over a period of weeks
D. relief of abdominal pain with antacids
E. pain that is worse preceding a meal" - -answer--"C. unrelenting pain over a period of weeks
The answer is C. Pain from peptic ulcer disease typically occurs in periods of exacerbation and
remission. Unrelenting pain over weeks or months should suggest an alternative diagnosis. Pain
is classically described as non-radiating, burning epigastric pain. Some patients may also
complain of chest or back pain. Pain is frequently severe enough to awaken patients from sleep
in early morning hours but is often not present upon waking in the morning, as gastric acid
secretion peaks around 2 a.m. and nadirs upon awakening."
"A 78 year old female presents to the E.D. with a sensation of left-lower quadrant abdominal
pain, accompanied by some irregular bowel movements and loss of appetite. Her abdominal CT
(two images) is shown in the Figure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. ovarian cyst
B. volvulus
C. appendicitis
D. diverticulitis
, 3
E. gastroenteritis" - -answer--The answer is D. A patient with this general picture is most likely
to have diverticulitis, which is revealed on the CT scan as diverticular disease with inflammation
(wall thickening and stranding).
"A mother brings her 6 week old boy to the emergency room. She states the baby has been
vomiting everything she's tried to feed him for the past 12 hours. She states that he usually eats
readily and completes an entire feeding, but he is unable to keep anything down. The emesis is
non-bloody and non-bilious, however it is projectile in nature. What is the most likely condition
in this patient?
A. viral gastroenteritis
B. constipation
C. appendicitis
D. intussusception
E. pyloric stenosis" - -answer--"E. pyloric stenosis
The answer is E. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in the second to sixth week of
life and is four times more common in males than females. Infants with hypertrophic pyloric
stenosis typically are vigorous eaters but shortly afterward regurgitate the entire feeding
contents in a projectile fashion. The emesis is non-bilious. The classic finding on exam is an
"olive" palpable in the abdomen, and diagnosis is typically via ultrasound. Intussusception
typically presents between the ages of 5 and 12 months. Gastroenteritis is characterized by
diarrhea as well as vomiting. Neither constipation nor appendicitis typically present with
protracted vomiting, though the latter condition tends to present atypically in young children
(and elderly adults)."
"A 46 year old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of abrupt onset of
intermittent severe pain in the left flank and abdomen that woke her from sleep. She is pacing
around the stretcher and appears extremely uncomfortable. She has never experienced this
type of pain previously and denies fevers or other symptoms. Renal calculus is suspected. Which
of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of renal calculi in this patient?
A. Urinalysis demonstrating hematuria confirms the diagnosis.
B. KUB detects less than 10% of calculi.
, 4
C. Helical CT scan greater than 95% sensitive and specific for renal calculi.
D. Ultrasound is the study of choice for detecting small ureteral calculi.
E. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) may be used in patients with renal insufficiency." - -answer--"C.
Helical CT scan greater than 95% sensitive and specific for renal calculi.
The answer is C. Helical CT scan has been shown to be both highly sensitive and specific in the
diagnosis of renal calculi. It is the preferred modality for evaluation in many centers. Although
urinalysis typically demonstrates hematuria in patients with renal calculi, hematuria is not
specific enough to confirm the diagnosis, and imaging is warranted in all first-time presenters.
KUB detects approximately 60-70% of calculi (though studies addressing this issue are
somewhat methodologically flawed). Ultrasound is not reliable for detecting small calculi, but is
85-94% sensitive and 100% specific at demonstrating hydronephrosis. IVP is contraindicated in
patients with renal insufficiency due to the dye load necessary to perform the study."
"A 50 year old man presents with 1 day of gradually worsening, intermittent, left lower
quadrant pain associated with loose stools. He has had no fevers or bloody bowel movements.
Similar symptoms in the past were self-limited. All vital signs lie within normal limits. Physical
examination shows mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant, normal active bowel sounds and
neither masses nor peritoneal signs. His primary-care physician can see him tomorrow in his
clinic. What should be done next in the E.D.?
A. Discharge home after a single dose of IV antibiotics
B. Discharge home on high-fiber diet, laxatives and stool softeners
C. Gastroenterology consult for endoscopy
D. Admit for observation and serial examinations" - -answer--"B. Discharge home on high-fiber
diet, laxatives and stool softeners
The answer is B. This patient has classic diverticulosis (saclike protrusions of colonic mucosa
through the muscularis) without signs of acute diverticulitis (inflammation of diverticula).
Usually these patients can be managed as outpatients with a high-fiber diet and treatments to
decrease intestinal spasm. If the patient develops fever or pain increases he may need further
evaluation to rule out abscess formation. Diverticulitis is treated with antibiotics, bowel rest and
analgesics."
DLM(ASCP) EXAM ACTUAL EXAM REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|AGRADE
(FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT, OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT,
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT, QUALITY MANAGEMENT)
Which of the following analgesics operates by a non-opioid mechanism?
A. fentanyl
B. meperidine
C. codeine
D. hydromorphone
E. ketorolac - -answer--E. ketorolac
The answer is E. Rosving's sign is pain in the right lower quadrant when the left lower quadrant
is palpated. Rebound tenderness occurs with the release of pressure. The iliopsoas sign is pain
associated with thigh flexion. The obturator sign is pain that occurs with thigh rotation. All of
these signs are associated with appendicitis. Murphy's sign is cessation of inspiration during
palpation of the right upper quadrant and is associated with acute cholecystitis."
"In establishing a differential diagnosis of abdominal pain, which of the following is true?
A. Radiation of pain to the scapula is suggestive of acute hepatitis.
B. Cervical motion tenderness is a useful physical finding for differentiating women with or
without acute appendicitis.
C. In patients with sickle cell anemia who present with abdominal pain and diarrhea, shigellosis
should be a top consideration.
D. The onset of pain prior to the occurrence of nausea and vomiting is more often suggestive of
a surgical etiology.
E. Diverticulitis tends to cause pain in the right upper quadrant." - -answer--"D. The onset of
pain prior to the occurrence of nausea and vomiting is more often suggestive of a surgical
etiology.
, 2
The answer is D. Pain prior to nausea and vomiting is often suggestive of a surgical etiology of
the pain, such as small bowel obstruction. Cervical motion tenderness has been noted in up to
25% of women with acute appendicitis. Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to Salmonella
infections. Radiation of pain to the scapula is classically present in acute choleycystitis.
Diverticulitis pain is generally located in the left lower quadrant."
"Of the following pain patterns, which is the least likely associated with diagnosis of peptic ulcer
disease?
A. non-radiating, burning epigastric pain
B. pain that awakens a patient in the middle of the night
C. unrelenting pain over a period of weeks
D. relief of abdominal pain with antacids
E. pain that is worse preceding a meal" - -answer--"C. unrelenting pain over a period of weeks
The answer is C. Pain from peptic ulcer disease typically occurs in periods of exacerbation and
remission. Unrelenting pain over weeks or months should suggest an alternative diagnosis. Pain
is classically described as non-radiating, burning epigastric pain. Some patients may also
complain of chest or back pain. Pain is frequently severe enough to awaken patients from sleep
in early morning hours but is often not present upon waking in the morning, as gastric acid
secretion peaks around 2 a.m. and nadirs upon awakening."
"A 78 year old female presents to the E.D. with a sensation of left-lower quadrant abdominal
pain, accompanied by some irregular bowel movements and loss of appetite. Her abdominal CT
(two images) is shown in the Figure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. ovarian cyst
B. volvulus
C. appendicitis
D. diverticulitis
, 3
E. gastroenteritis" - -answer--The answer is D. A patient with this general picture is most likely
to have diverticulitis, which is revealed on the CT scan as diverticular disease with inflammation
(wall thickening and stranding).
"A mother brings her 6 week old boy to the emergency room. She states the baby has been
vomiting everything she's tried to feed him for the past 12 hours. She states that he usually eats
readily and completes an entire feeding, but he is unable to keep anything down. The emesis is
non-bloody and non-bilious, however it is projectile in nature. What is the most likely condition
in this patient?
A. viral gastroenteritis
B. constipation
C. appendicitis
D. intussusception
E. pyloric stenosis" - -answer--"E. pyloric stenosis
The answer is E. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in the second to sixth week of
life and is four times more common in males than females. Infants with hypertrophic pyloric
stenosis typically are vigorous eaters but shortly afterward regurgitate the entire feeding
contents in a projectile fashion. The emesis is non-bilious. The classic finding on exam is an
"olive" palpable in the abdomen, and diagnosis is typically via ultrasound. Intussusception
typically presents between the ages of 5 and 12 months. Gastroenteritis is characterized by
diarrhea as well as vomiting. Neither constipation nor appendicitis typically present with
protracted vomiting, though the latter condition tends to present atypically in young children
(and elderly adults)."
"A 46 year old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of abrupt onset of
intermittent severe pain in the left flank and abdomen that woke her from sleep. She is pacing
around the stretcher and appears extremely uncomfortable. She has never experienced this
type of pain previously and denies fevers or other symptoms. Renal calculus is suspected. Which
of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of renal calculi in this patient?
A. Urinalysis demonstrating hematuria confirms the diagnosis.
B. KUB detects less than 10% of calculi.
, 4
C. Helical CT scan greater than 95% sensitive and specific for renal calculi.
D. Ultrasound is the study of choice for detecting small ureteral calculi.
E. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) may be used in patients with renal insufficiency." - -answer--"C.
Helical CT scan greater than 95% sensitive and specific for renal calculi.
The answer is C. Helical CT scan has been shown to be both highly sensitive and specific in the
diagnosis of renal calculi. It is the preferred modality for evaluation in many centers. Although
urinalysis typically demonstrates hematuria in patients with renal calculi, hematuria is not
specific enough to confirm the diagnosis, and imaging is warranted in all first-time presenters.
KUB detects approximately 60-70% of calculi (though studies addressing this issue are
somewhat methodologically flawed). Ultrasound is not reliable for detecting small calculi, but is
85-94% sensitive and 100% specific at demonstrating hydronephrosis. IVP is contraindicated in
patients with renal insufficiency due to the dye load necessary to perform the study."
"A 50 year old man presents with 1 day of gradually worsening, intermittent, left lower
quadrant pain associated with loose stools. He has had no fevers or bloody bowel movements.
Similar symptoms in the past were self-limited. All vital signs lie within normal limits. Physical
examination shows mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant, normal active bowel sounds and
neither masses nor peritoneal signs. His primary-care physician can see him tomorrow in his
clinic. What should be done next in the E.D.?
A. Discharge home after a single dose of IV antibiotics
B. Discharge home on high-fiber diet, laxatives and stool softeners
C. Gastroenterology consult for endoscopy
D. Admit for observation and serial examinations" - -answer--"B. Discharge home on high-fiber
diet, laxatives and stool softeners
The answer is B. This patient has classic diverticulosis (saclike protrusions of colonic mucosa
through the muscularis) without signs of acute diverticulitis (inflammation of diverticula).
Usually these patients can be managed as outpatients with a high-fiber diet and treatments to
decrease intestinal spasm. If the patient develops fever or pain increases he may need further
evaluation to rule out abscess formation. Diverticulitis is treated with antibiotics, bowel rest and
analgesics."
