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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2025–2026 | 140 Real Exam Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales | Updated Nursing Study Pack

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Prepare with confidence using the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2025–2026 Study Pack (Questions 1–140). This resource contains realistic, exam-style nursing questions with A–D answer choices, correct answers bolded, and detailed rationales for every item. Covering essential topics in Fundamentals, Pharmacology, Med-Surg, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Leadership, and Mental Health, this guide is designed to help you master ATI’s testing style and boost your predictor score. With 140 verified practice questions and in-depth rationales, you’ll strengthen test-taking strategies, improve critical thinking, and reinforce must-know content for the ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam—the final hurdle before NCLEX success. Updated for 2025–2026, this study pack is perfect for nursing students who want a guaranteed pass approach and complete preparation. 140 Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales Updated for ATI Predictor 2025–2026 Covers All Major Nursing Topics (RN level) Ideal for ATI Predictor Prep & NCLEX Readiness

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2025–2026 | 140 Real
Exam Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales | Updated Nursing Study Pack.healthstudypro




1.

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which finding should the
nurse report immediately to the provider?
A. Small ecchymosis on the arm
B. INR of 2.2
C. Blood in the urine
D. Report of occasional headaches

Answer: C. Blood in the urine
Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine indicates possible internal bleeding,
which is a serious complication of anticoagulation therapy. While ecchymosis and
mild headaches can occur, they are less urgent. An INR of 2.2 is within therapeutic
range for most conditions (2–3). Hematuria, however, suggests excessive
anticoagulation and requires immediate provider notification to prevent life-
threatening hemorrhage.



2.

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A client with COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/min. The nurse
should take which action?
A. Document the oxygen administration as prescribed
B. Decrease the oxygen to 2 L/min
C. Switch to a simple face mask
D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises

Answer: B. Decrease the oxygen to 2 L/min
Rationale: Clients with COPD are at risk of losing their hypoxic drive if given
high levels of oxygen (>3 L/min). This can result in CO₂ retention and respiratory
depression. Oxygen should be administered at the lowest level needed to maintain
SpO₂ at or above 90–92%. Deep breathing exercises are useful but do not address
the immediate safety risk.



3.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who delivered 1 hour ago. The fundus is
boggy and deviated to the right. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer oxytocin as prescribed
B. Assist the client to void
C. Massage the fundus firmly
D. Notify the provider

Answer: B. Assist the client to void
Rationale: A boggy, deviated fundus usually indicates a full bladder. The nurse
should help the client empty the bladder first, which allows the uterus to contract
properly and reduce bleeding. If the uterus remains boggy after voiding, fundal
massage and medications like oxytocin may be needed.

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4.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client prescribed lithium carbonate
for bipolar disorder. Which instruction is most important?
A. Avoid caffeinated beverages
B. Limit salt in the diet
C. Maintain adequate fluid and sodium intake
D. Report drowsiness to the provider

Answer: C. Maintain adequate fluid and sodium intake
Rationale: Lithium levels are highly sensitive to changes in fluid and sodium
balance. Dehydration or low sodium increases lithium toxicity risk. Clients should
maintain consistent fluid intake (2–3 L/day) and a stable sodium diet. Avoiding
caffeine can help but is not as critical as fluid/electrolyte balance.



5.

A client receiving chemotherapy develops stomatitis. Which food choice should
the nurse recommend?
A. Tomato soup
B. Vanilla milkshake
C. Pretzels
D. Orange juice

Answer: B. Vanilla milkshake
Rationale: Stomatitis causes painful oral ulcerations, so clients should consume
soft, bland, non-acidic, and cool foods. A vanilla milkshake is soothing and

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provides calories/protein. Acidic foods (tomatoes, orange juice) worsen irritation,
and dry/crunchy foods like pretzels cause trauma.



6.

A nurse is teaching a client with a new ileostomy about dietary choices. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will eat popcorn as a healthy snack.”
B. “I should avoid foods high in salt.”
C. “I will increase my fluid intake to prevent dehydration.”
D. “I should limit foods that contain potassium.”

Answer: C. I will increase my fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Rationale: Ileostomy clients lose large amounts of liquid stool, which increases
dehydration and electrolyte imbalance risk. Adequate fluids are essential. Popcorn
can cause obstruction. Salt is not restricted unless another condition exists; in fact,
sodium may need replacement. Potassium is important to maintain due to losses.



7.

Which intervention is priority for a nurse caring for a client during a tonic-clonic
seizure?
A. Restrain the client to prevent injury
B. Insert an oral airway
C. Turn the client on their side
D. Record the time seizure started

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