TEST BANK FOR CURRENT DIAGNOSIS &
TREATMENT OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY –
LATEST EDITION BY ALAN | UPDATED 2025–2026 |
RATED A+ | 100% CORRECT (CHAPTERS 1–60)
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q1. A 32-year-old woman presents for an annual exam. She has no significant past
medical history. According to current guidelines, how often should women aged
21–65 undergo cervical cancer screening with Pap smear alone if results remain
normal?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 5 years
Correct Answer: C. Every 3 years
Rationale: USPSTF recommends Pap smear every 3 years for women ages 21–65.
Co-testing with HPV may extend interval to 5 years starting at age 30.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q2. At what age should average-risk women begin routine mammography
screening?
A. 35 years
B. 40 years
C. 45 years
D. 50 years
Correct Answer: B. 40 years
Rationale: Most guidelines recommend mammography starting at age 40 for
average-risk women. High-risk patients may start earlier.
,Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q3. A 28-year-old woman is seeking contraception. She has migraine with aura.
Which method is contraindicated?
A. Copper IUD
B. Progestin-only pill
C. Combined oral contraceptives
D. Levonorgestrel IUD
Correct Answer: C. Combined oral contraceptives
Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraception is contraindicated in women with
migraine with aura due to increased risk of stroke.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q4. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescents is:
A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. Ovulatory dysfunction
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B. Ovulatory dysfunction
Rationale: In adolescents, anovulatory cycles are the most common cause of
abnormal uterine bleeding due to immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian
axis.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q5. A Pap smear result shows ASC-US (atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance). The next best step in a 25-year-old patient is:
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 1 year
C. HPV DNA testing
D. Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: B. Repeat cytology in 1 year
Rationale: For patients <30 with ASC-US, repeat cytology at 1 year is appropriate.
For ≥30, HPV testing is considered.
,Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q6. A 45-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding. The first diagnostic
step is:
A. Colposcopy
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. Pap smear
Correct Answer: A. Colposcopy
Rationale: Postcoital bleeding may suggest cervical pathology, requiring
colposcopic evaluation after abnormal Pap smear or suspicious presentation.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q7. The most common site of endometriosis is:
A. Uterine myometrium
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Cervix
Correct Answer: B. Ovaries
Rationale: The ovary is the most common site, often forming “chocolate cysts”
(endometriomas).
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q8. A 36-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 asks about the risk of combined oral
contraceptive pills. Which is the most concerning risk?
A. Hypertension
B. Osteoporosis
C. Venous thromboembolism
D. Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: C. Venous thromboembolism
, Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraceptives increase risk of venous
thromboembolism, especially in obese women.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q9. A 50-year-old woman presents with hot flashes and irregular menses. Which
test best confirms menopause?
A. Serum estradiol
B. Serum progesterone
C. Serum FSH
D. LH surge testing
Correct Answer: C. Serum FSH
Rationale: Elevated FSH is the best lab marker of ovarian failure/menopause.
Topic: Reproductive Endocrinology & Infertility
Q10. The most common benign ovarian tumor in women of reproductive age is:
A. Thecoma
B. Dermoid cyst (mature cystic teratoma)
C. Endometrioma
D. Serous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: B. Dermoid cyst (mature cystic teratoma)
Rationale: Dermoid cysts (teratomas) are the most common benign ovarian
tumors in reproductive-aged women, containing tissues from all three germ layers.
Topic: Reproductive Endocrinology & Infertility
Q11. The most common cause of primary amenorrhea is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Müllerian agenesis
Correct Answer: D. Müllerian agenesis
Rationale: Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome) is the
TREATMENT OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY –
LATEST EDITION BY ALAN | UPDATED 2025–2026 |
RATED A+ | 100% CORRECT (CHAPTERS 1–60)
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q1. A 32-year-old woman presents for an annual exam. She has no significant past
medical history. According to current guidelines, how often should women aged
21–65 undergo cervical cancer screening with Pap smear alone if results remain
normal?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 5 years
Correct Answer: C. Every 3 years
Rationale: USPSTF recommends Pap smear every 3 years for women ages 21–65.
Co-testing with HPV may extend interval to 5 years starting at age 30.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q2. At what age should average-risk women begin routine mammography
screening?
A. 35 years
B. 40 years
C. 45 years
D. 50 years
Correct Answer: B. 40 years
Rationale: Most guidelines recommend mammography starting at age 40 for
average-risk women. High-risk patients may start earlier.
,Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q3. A 28-year-old woman is seeking contraception. She has migraine with aura.
Which method is contraindicated?
A. Copper IUD
B. Progestin-only pill
C. Combined oral contraceptives
D. Levonorgestrel IUD
Correct Answer: C. Combined oral contraceptives
Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraception is contraindicated in women with
migraine with aura due to increased risk of stroke.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q4. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescents is:
A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. Ovulatory dysfunction
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B. Ovulatory dysfunction
Rationale: In adolescents, anovulatory cycles are the most common cause of
abnormal uterine bleeding due to immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian
axis.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q5. A Pap smear result shows ASC-US (atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance). The next best step in a 25-year-old patient is:
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 1 year
C. HPV DNA testing
D. Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: B. Repeat cytology in 1 year
Rationale: For patients <30 with ASC-US, repeat cytology at 1 year is appropriate.
For ≥30, HPV testing is considered.
,Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q6. A 45-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding. The first diagnostic
step is:
A. Colposcopy
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. Pap smear
Correct Answer: A. Colposcopy
Rationale: Postcoital bleeding may suggest cervical pathology, requiring
colposcopic evaluation after abnormal Pap smear or suspicious presentation.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q7. The most common site of endometriosis is:
A. Uterine myometrium
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Cervix
Correct Answer: B. Ovaries
Rationale: The ovary is the most common site, often forming “chocolate cysts”
(endometriomas).
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q8. A 36-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 asks about the risk of combined oral
contraceptive pills. Which is the most concerning risk?
A. Hypertension
B. Osteoporosis
C. Venous thromboembolism
D. Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: C. Venous thromboembolism
, Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraceptives increase risk of venous
thromboembolism, especially in obese women.
Topic: General Gynecology & Preventive Care
Q9. A 50-year-old woman presents with hot flashes and irregular menses. Which
test best confirms menopause?
A. Serum estradiol
B. Serum progesterone
C. Serum FSH
D. LH surge testing
Correct Answer: C. Serum FSH
Rationale: Elevated FSH is the best lab marker of ovarian failure/menopause.
Topic: Reproductive Endocrinology & Infertility
Q10. The most common benign ovarian tumor in women of reproductive age is:
A. Thecoma
B. Dermoid cyst (mature cystic teratoma)
C. Endometrioma
D. Serous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: B. Dermoid cyst (mature cystic teratoma)
Rationale: Dermoid cysts (teratomas) are the most common benign ovarian
tumors in reproductive-aged women, containing tissues from all three germ layers.
Topic: Reproductive Endocrinology & Infertility
Q11. The most common cause of primary amenorrhea is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Müllerian agenesis
Correct Answer: D. Müllerian agenesis
Rationale: Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome) is the
