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ATI MEDICAL SURGICAL PROCTORED EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% Top Score, ALREADY GRADED A+

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Prepare for the ATI Medical-Surgical Proctored Exam 2025–2026 with the newest NGN-style questions and verified correct answers. This complete 100-question study guide includes detailed rationales to help you master med-surg topics such as cardiac, respiratory, renal, neuro, GI, endocrine, and fluid/electrolyte management. Already rated A+, this trusted resource guarantees top exam performance and first-attempt success.

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ATI MEDICAL SURGICAL PROCTORED EXAM 2025-2026 WITH

NGN QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% Top Score,

ALREADY GRADED A+








Q1. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with deep, rapid

respirations, fruity breath odor, and confusion. Which acid-base disturbance

is most consistent with these findings?

A. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

B. Respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation

C. Metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap

D. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

Rationale: DKA is characterized by accumulation of ketoacids causing

metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap; the body compensates with

Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) and fruity (acetone) breath.

Respiratory acidosis results from hypoventilation, not hyperventilation, and

metabolic alkalosis is the opposite disturbance. Normal anion gap metabolic

acidosis (hyperchloremic) is typically due to bicarbonate losses, not ketoacid

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accumulation, so the clinical picture here fits metabolic acidosis with an

increased anion gap.



Q2. Which electrolyte abnormality most commonly causes peaked T waves

and widened QRS complexes on ECG when severe?

A. Hypokalemia

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Hypocalcemia

D. Hypernatremia

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia affects cardiac conduction and

repolarization, producing classic ECG changes such as peaked (tall, narrow)

T waves and progressive widening of the QRS complex, which can progress

to ventricular fibrillation. Hypokalemia causes flattened T waves and U

waves. Calcium and sodium disturbances have different ECG correlates;

hypernatremia does not classically cause these specific ECG findings.



Q3. A 65-year-old smoker develops progressive dyspnea and a barrel-

shaped chest. Pulmonary function testing shows increased total lung

capacity and increased residual volume. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

B. Emphysema (COPD - emphysematous phenotype)

,3|Page


C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Acute bronchitis

Rationale: Emphysema produces airspace enlargement and loss of elastic

recoil, creating air trapping and hyperinflation with increased total lung

capacity and increased residual volume; the classic barrel chest and

progressive dyspnea fit emphysema. Pulmonary fibrosis would show

reduced lung volumes (restrictive pattern). Pulmonary embolism causes

acute dyspnea and perfusion defects but not chronic hyperinflation. Acute

bronchitis is transient and does not produce those chronic PFT changes.



Q4. Which mechanism best explains peripheral edema in right-sided heart

failure?

A. Increased oncotic pressure in capillaries

B. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

C. Elevated systemic venous hydrostatic pressure leading to fluid

transudation

D. Increased lymphatic drainage

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the

systemic venous circulation, increasing venous and capillary hydrostatic

pressure and forcing fluid into the interstitium, producing peripheral edema.

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Increased oncotic pressure or increased lymphatic drainage would reduce

edema. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure would not favor fluid

accumulation.



Q5. Which lab value pattern is most typical of primary hypothyroidism?

A. Low TSH, high free T4

B. High TSH, low free T4

C. Low TSH, low free T4

D. High TSH, high free T4

Rationale: In primary hypothyroidism the dysfunctional thyroid gland

produces insufficient T4/T3, leading to low free T4 levels; the pituitary

responds by increasing TSH secretion, so the typical pattern is high TSH and

low free T4. Low TSH with low free T4 would suggest secondary/central

hypothyroidism. High TSH and high free T4 are inconsistent with

hypothyroidism.



Q6. A patient with chronic kidney disease develops fatigue, pallor, and a

hemoglobin of 8 g/dL. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most likely

explains the anemia?

A. Iron overload from reduced excretion

B. Decreased erythropoietin production by failing kidneys

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