ATI RN Pharmacology Retake Exam
2025 – Verified Questions and Correct
Answers
Question 1: Medication Administration
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client with diabetes mellitus. At what
time should the nurse administer this medication?
A. Immediately before breakfast.
B. At bedtime.
C. With the evening meal.
D. Every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin typically administered once daily at bedtime
to provide consistent blood glucose control over 24 hours. Administering before breakfast (A) or
with the evening meal (C) is incorrect for glargine, as it is not timed with meals. Every 12 hours
(D) is incorrect, as glargine is not a twice-daily insulin.
Question 2: Adverse Effects
A client receiving morphine reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Administer a second dose of morphine.
B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
C. Encourage the client to eat a light meal.
D. Discontinue the morphine immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of morphine, an opioid. Administering
a prescribed antiemetic (B) addresses these symptoms effectively. A second dose (A) may
worsen nausea. Eating (C) is inappropriate during nausea. Discontinuing morphine (D) is
unnecessary without provider guidance.
Question 3: Drug Interactions
A client is prescribed warfarin and reports taking ibuprofen for pain. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
,A. Encourage the client to continue ibuprofen as needed.
B. Notify the healthcare provider about the potential drug interaction.
C. Monitor the client’s pain level closely.
D. Instruct the client to take ibuprofen with food.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, an
anticoagulant. Notifying the provider (B) is the priority to adjust therapy. Continuing ibuprofen
(A) or taking it with food (D) does not address the interaction risk. Monitoring pain (C) is
secondary.
Question 4: Client Education
A nurse is teaching a client about metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A. Take the medication only when blood glucose is high.
B. Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
C. Expect weight gain as a common side effect.
D. Stop the medication if mild nausea occurs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin is best taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects like
nausea or diarrhea. Taking it only when glucose is high (A) is incorrect, as it requires consistent
dosing. Weight gain (C) is not typical; metformin may promote weight loss. Stopping for mild
nausea (D) is unnecessary without provider guidance.
Question 5: Medication Administration (Select All That
Apply)
Which actions should the nurse take when administering intravenous (IV) vancomycin? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Administer over at least 60 minutes to prevent red man syndrome.
B. Monitor for signs of ototoxicity.
C. Administer as a rapid IV push.
D. Check peak and trough levels as ordered.
E. Dilute the medication in 5% dextrose only.
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Vancomycin requires slow infusion (A) over at least 60 minutes to prevent red man
syndrome (flushing, rash). Monitoring for ototoxicity (B) is essential due to potential hearing
damage. Peak and trough levels (D) ensure therapeutic dosing. Rapid IV push (C) is incorrect
and dangerous. Vancomycin can be diluted in normal saline or dextrose (E is incorrect).
, Question 6: Adverse Effects
A client on lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Instruct the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.
B. Report the cough to the healthcare provider.
C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
D. Reassure the client that the cough is temporary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and may
require switching to an alternative medication, such as an ARB. Reporting to the provider (B) is
the priority. Cough suppressants (A) treat symptoms but not the cause. Fluid intake (C) is
irrelevant. Reassurance (D) dismisses the need for intervention.
Question 7: Drug Interactions
A client taking digoxin is prescribed a new diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor for?
A. Hypernatremia.
B. Hypokalemia.
C. Hypercalcemia.
D. Hypermagnesemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diuretics, especially loop or thiazide diuretics, can cause hypokalemia, which
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (B) is critical. Hypernatremia
(A), hypercalcemia (C), and hypermagnesemia (D) are not primary concerns with this
combination.
Question 8: Client Education
A client is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands the
teaching?
A. “I will take this medication daily to prevent asthma attacks.”
B. “I will use this inhaler when I have trouble breathing.”
C. “I should expect weight gain with this medication.”
D. “I will stop using it if I feel shaky.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used as needed for acute asthma symptoms, such as
difficulty breathing (B). It is not a daily controller medication (A). Weight gain (C) is not a side
effect. Shaking (D) is a common side effect that does not warrant stopping the medication
without provider guidance.
2025 – Verified Questions and Correct
Answers
Question 1: Medication Administration
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client with diabetes mellitus. At what
time should the nurse administer this medication?
A. Immediately before breakfast.
B. At bedtime.
C. With the evening meal.
D. Every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin typically administered once daily at bedtime
to provide consistent blood glucose control over 24 hours. Administering before breakfast (A) or
with the evening meal (C) is incorrect for glargine, as it is not timed with meals. Every 12 hours
(D) is incorrect, as glargine is not a twice-daily insulin.
Question 2: Adverse Effects
A client receiving morphine reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Administer a second dose of morphine.
B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
C. Encourage the client to eat a light meal.
D. Discontinue the morphine immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of morphine, an opioid. Administering
a prescribed antiemetic (B) addresses these symptoms effectively. A second dose (A) may
worsen nausea. Eating (C) is inappropriate during nausea. Discontinuing morphine (D) is
unnecessary without provider guidance.
Question 3: Drug Interactions
A client is prescribed warfarin and reports taking ibuprofen for pain. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
,A. Encourage the client to continue ibuprofen as needed.
B. Notify the healthcare provider about the potential drug interaction.
C. Monitor the client’s pain level closely.
D. Instruct the client to take ibuprofen with food.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, an
anticoagulant. Notifying the provider (B) is the priority to adjust therapy. Continuing ibuprofen
(A) or taking it with food (D) does not address the interaction risk. Monitoring pain (C) is
secondary.
Question 4: Client Education
A nurse is teaching a client about metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A. Take the medication only when blood glucose is high.
B. Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
C. Expect weight gain as a common side effect.
D. Stop the medication if mild nausea occurs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin is best taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects like
nausea or diarrhea. Taking it only when glucose is high (A) is incorrect, as it requires consistent
dosing. Weight gain (C) is not typical; metformin may promote weight loss. Stopping for mild
nausea (D) is unnecessary without provider guidance.
Question 5: Medication Administration (Select All That
Apply)
Which actions should the nurse take when administering intravenous (IV) vancomycin? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Administer over at least 60 minutes to prevent red man syndrome.
B. Monitor for signs of ototoxicity.
C. Administer as a rapid IV push.
D. Check peak and trough levels as ordered.
E. Dilute the medication in 5% dextrose only.
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Vancomycin requires slow infusion (A) over at least 60 minutes to prevent red man
syndrome (flushing, rash). Monitoring for ototoxicity (B) is essential due to potential hearing
damage. Peak and trough levels (D) ensure therapeutic dosing. Rapid IV push (C) is incorrect
and dangerous. Vancomycin can be diluted in normal saline or dextrose (E is incorrect).
, Question 6: Adverse Effects
A client on lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Instruct the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.
B. Report the cough to the healthcare provider.
C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
D. Reassure the client that the cough is temporary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and may
require switching to an alternative medication, such as an ARB. Reporting to the provider (B) is
the priority. Cough suppressants (A) treat symptoms but not the cause. Fluid intake (C) is
irrelevant. Reassurance (D) dismisses the need for intervention.
Question 7: Drug Interactions
A client taking digoxin is prescribed a new diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor for?
A. Hypernatremia.
B. Hypokalemia.
C. Hypercalcemia.
D. Hypermagnesemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diuretics, especially loop or thiazide diuretics, can cause hypokalemia, which
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (B) is critical. Hypernatremia
(A), hypercalcemia (C), and hypermagnesemia (D) are not primary concerns with this
combination.
Question 8: Client Education
A client is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands the
teaching?
A. “I will take this medication daily to prevent asthma attacks.”
B. “I will use this inhaler when I have trouble breathing.”
C. “I should expect weight gain with this medication.”
D. “I will stop using it if I feel shaky.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used as needed for acute asthma symptoms, such as
difficulty breathing (B). It is not a daily controller medication (A). Weight gain (C) is not a side
effect. Shaking (D) is a common side effect that does not warrant stopping the medication
without provider guidance.
