CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW
VERSION!
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain.
Cardiac work-up is negative but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the
following indices would indicate a potential iron deficiency anemia?
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 72, MCHC 38 - ANSWER-MCV 67, MCHC 29
Raionale: Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is identified as a microcytic, hypochromic
anemia. Normal MCV is 80-100 and normal MCHC is 33-37 therefore MCV less
than 80 and MCHC less than 33 is considered microcytic hypochromic and
indicative
A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being
treated with ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of
anemia within:
*3 months.
*4 weeks.
*8 months.
*2 weeks. - ANSWER-3 months.
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, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected as
well as the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are typically
needed to show recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.
A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with
progressive fatigue and anemia. Her laboratory results show microcytic
hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Hemolytic anemia
*Anemia of chronic disease
*Vitamin B12 deficiency
*Iron deficiency anemia - ANSWER-Iron deficiency anemia
A patient who has active herpes zoster is at risk of shedding which contagious
virus?
*Varicella zoster
*Shingles
*Herpes simplex virus -1
*Herpes simplex virus -2 - ANSWER-Varicella zoster
Rationale: Patients with herpes zoster (shingles) are at risk of transmitting varicella
zoster (chicken pox) to those who have not yet had varicella or been vaccinated.
Your patient presents with 2-month progressive weakness in legs, loss of
coordination, and loss of bladder tone. Which of the following diseases should be
investigated?
*Embolic stroke
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, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
*Multiple sclerosis
*Multiple myeloma
*Descending Guillain-Barre - ANSWER-Multiple sclerosis
Rationale: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is commonly associated with progressive loss of
muscular function due to demyelination of the nervous system. Embolic stroke is
acute, not slow in nature. Descending GB would have symptoms starting in the
upper extremities and working down the body, not up the body as described
herein. Multiple myeloma tends to have symptoms of bone pain and are more
nonspecific.
What is the first-line treatment for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
*Corticosteroids
*acetaminophen (Tylenol)
*Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
*Ibuprofen (Advil) - ANSWER-Ibuprofen (Advil)
Rationale: While more severe SLE will require steroids for acute management and
monoclonal antibody therapy or biologics (DMARDS) for chronic therapy, mild SLE
can be managed with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Acetaminophen is
not an NSAID and is not indicated for SLE.
Your patient presents with painless lymph node swelling, weight loss, night
sweats, and asks what is wrong with him. Which of the following represents a
most appropriate intervention to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma?
*Examine the patient
*Order a core needle biopsy
*Consult pulmonology
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, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
*Order a CBC and TSH - ANSWER-Order a core needle biopsy
Rationale: This question is asking for an intervention. Although examining the
patient is useful, it is an evaluation tool, as is ordering routine lab work.
Pulmonology is not an appropriate consultation for this patient; rather,
hematology or oncology would be best suited to evaluate and work up this
patient. A diagnostic needle biopsy is the most definitive intervention to gain a
diagnosis for a suspected lymphoma.
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, joint pain, and a butterfly-shaped rash
on her face. What is the most appropriate initial management in primary care?
*Corticosteroids
*NSAIDs
*Antivirals
*Referral to rheumatology - ANSWER-Referral to rheumatology
Rationale: As this represents a likely diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE), this should be managed by rheumatology to evaluate and initiate therapy
when possible.
A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of a red, swollen, and painful
lower leg. Examination reveals erythema and warmth suggestive of cellulitis. He
has no known allergies. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?
*Doxycycline
*Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
*Clindamycin
*Cephalexin - ANSWER-Cephalexin
4|Page
CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW
VERSION!
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain.
Cardiac work-up is negative but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the
following indices would indicate a potential iron deficiency anemia?
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 72, MCHC 38 - ANSWER-MCV 67, MCHC 29
Raionale: Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is identified as a microcytic, hypochromic
anemia. Normal MCV is 80-100 and normal MCHC is 33-37 therefore MCV less
than 80 and MCHC less than 33 is considered microcytic hypochromic and
indicative
A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being
treated with ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of
anemia within:
*3 months.
*4 weeks.
*8 months.
*2 weeks. - ANSWER-3 months.
1|Page
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected as
well as the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are typically
needed to show recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.
A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with
progressive fatigue and anemia. Her laboratory results show microcytic
hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Hemolytic anemia
*Anemia of chronic disease
*Vitamin B12 deficiency
*Iron deficiency anemia - ANSWER-Iron deficiency anemia
A patient who has active herpes zoster is at risk of shedding which contagious
virus?
*Varicella zoster
*Shingles
*Herpes simplex virus -1
*Herpes simplex virus -2 - ANSWER-Varicella zoster
Rationale: Patients with herpes zoster (shingles) are at risk of transmitting varicella
zoster (chicken pox) to those who have not yet had varicella or been vaccinated.
Your patient presents with 2-month progressive weakness in legs, loss of
coordination, and loss of bladder tone. Which of the following diseases should be
investigated?
*Embolic stroke
2|Page
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
*Multiple sclerosis
*Multiple myeloma
*Descending Guillain-Barre - ANSWER-Multiple sclerosis
Rationale: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is commonly associated with progressive loss of
muscular function due to demyelination of the nervous system. Embolic stroke is
acute, not slow in nature. Descending GB would have symptoms starting in the
upper extremities and working down the body, not up the body as described
herein. Multiple myeloma tends to have symptoms of bone pain and are more
nonspecific.
What is the first-line treatment for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
*Corticosteroids
*acetaminophen (Tylenol)
*Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
*Ibuprofen (Advil) - ANSWER-Ibuprofen (Advil)
Rationale: While more severe SLE will require steroids for acute management and
monoclonal antibody therapy or biologics (DMARDS) for chronic therapy, mild SLE
can be managed with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Acetaminophen is
not an NSAID and is not indicated for SLE.
Your patient presents with painless lymph node swelling, weight loss, night
sweats, and asks what is wrong with him. Which of the following represents a
most appropriate intervention to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma?
*Examine the patient
*Order a core needle biopsy
*Consult pulmonology
3|Page
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam
*Order a CBC and TSH - ANSWER-Order a core needle biopsy
Rationale: This question is asking for an intervention. Although examining the
patient is useful, it is an evaluation tool, as is ordering routine lab work.
Pulmonology is not an appropriate consultation for this patient; rather,
hematology or oncology would be best suited to evaluate and work up this
patient. A diagnostic needle biopsy is the most definitive intervention to gain a
diagnosis for a suspected lymphoma.
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, joint pain, and a butterfly-shaped rash
on her face. What is the most appropriate initial management in primary care?
*Corticosteroids
*NSAIDs
*Antivirals
*Referral to rheumatology - ANSWER-Referral to rheumatology
Rationale: As this represents a likely diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE), this should be managed by rheumatology to evaluate and initiate therapy
when possible.
A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of a red, swollen, and painful
lower leg. Examination reveals erythema and warmth suggestive of cellulitis. He
has no known allergies. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?
*Doxycycline
*Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
*Clindamycin
*Cephalexin - ANSWER-Cephalexin
4|Page
