HESI Critical Care Exam
HESI CRITICAL CARE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE ALL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace.
Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day.
B. Dress with the brace over regular clothing.
C. Shower with the brace directly against the skin.
D. Remove the brace just before going to bed. - ANSWER-A. Wear the brace over a
T-shirt 23 hours per day.
RATIONALE:
Idiopathic scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine in adolescent
females. Early
treatment uses a Milwaukee brace that places pressure against the lateral spinal
curvature, under
the neck, and against the iliac crest, so it should be worn for 23 hours per day over
a T-shirt (D)
which reduces friction and chafing of the skin. (A, B, and C) reduce the
effectiveness of the
brace.
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic
visit.
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, HESI Critical Care Exam
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least
likely to
exacerbate asthma?
A. Carteolol (Ocupress).
B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal).
C. Pindolol (Visken).
D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) - ANSWER-D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
RATIONALE:
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor)
(C), a beta2
blocking agent which is also cardio-selective and less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction.
Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic
symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective
antihypertensive
agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for
bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors
in the lungs,
causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other
obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the
nurse that the
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, HESI Critical Care Exam
healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has
been normal for
the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Obtain another antihypertensive prescription to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
B. Stop the medication and keep an accurate record of blood pressure
C. Report any uncomfortable symptoms after stopping the medication.
D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. -
ANSWER-D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the
next week.
RATIONALE:
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to
prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks
(C), should be
recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular
dysrhythmias.
Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia
and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended. (D) is not indicated.
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which
additional
assessment should the nurse make?
A. Has the client experienced constipation recently?
B. Did the client miss any doses of the medication?
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, HESI Critical Care Exam
C. How long has the client been taking the medication?
D. Does the client use any tobacco products? - ANSWER-C. How long has the client
been taking the medication?
RATIONALE:
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with
continued use
becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication
(A) provides
information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is
scheduled
for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for the
prescribed
medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. Provide a more rapid induction of anesthesia.
B. Induce relaxation before induction of anesthesia.
C. Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
D. Minimize the amount of analgesia needed postoperatively. - ANSWER-C.
Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
RATIONALE:
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the
sinoatrial node and
prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C
and D) do not
4|Page
HESI CRITICAL CARE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE ALL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace.
Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day.
B. Dress with the brace over regular clothing.
C. Shower with the brace directly against the skin.
D. Remove the brace just before going to bed. - ANSWER-A. Wear the brace over a
T-shirt 23 hours per day.
RATIONALE:
Idiopathic scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine in adolescent
females. Early
treatment uses a Milwaukee brace that places pressure against the lateral spinal
curvature, under
the neck, and against the iliac crest, so it should be worn for 23 hours per day over
a T-shirt (D)
which reduces friction and chafing of the skin. (A, B, and C) reduce the
effectiveness of the
brace.
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic
visit.
1|Page
, HESI Critical Care Exam
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least
likely to
exacerbate asthma?
A. Carteolol (Ocupress).
B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal).
C. Pindolol (Visken).
D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) - ANSWER-D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
RATIONALE:
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor)
(C), a beta2
blocking agent which is also cardio-selective and less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction.
Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic
symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective
antihypertensive
agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for
bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors
in the lungs,
causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other
obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the
nurse that the
2|Page
, HESI Critical Care Exam
healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has
been normal for
the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Obtain another antihypertensive prescription to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
B. Stop the medication and keep an accurate record of blood pressure
C. Report any uncomfortable symptoms after stopping the medication.
D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. -
ANSWER-D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the
next week.
RATIONALE:
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to
prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks
(C), should be
recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular
dysrhythmias.
Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia
and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended. (D) is not indicated.
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which
additional
assessment should the nurse make?
A. Has the client experienced constipation recently?
B. Did the client miss any doses of the medication?
3|Page
, HESI Critical Care Exam
C. How long has the client been taking the medication?
D. Does the client use any tobacco products? - ANSWER-C. How long has the client
been taking the medication?
RATIONALE:
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with
continued use
becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication
(A) provides
information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is
scheduled
for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for the
prescribed
medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. Provide a more rapid induction of anesthesia.
B. Induce relaxation before induction of anesthesia.
C. Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
D. Minimize the amount of analgesia needed postoperatively. - ANSWER-C.
Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
RATIONALE:
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the
sinoatrial node and
prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C
and D) do not
4|Page
