2025-2026 1
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
2025–2026 | 100+ VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES, ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and
reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
a. Check the client’s temperature
b. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper
c. Monitor fetal heart rate
d. Perform a sterile vaginal exam
Answer: c. Monitor fetal heart rate
Rationale: The priority is assessing for fetal distress after possible
rupture of membranes. Nitrazine testing and temperature follow, but FHR
is always first.
Q2. A client is in labor and receiving an oxytocin infusion. The nurse
notes contractions occurring every 90 seconds and lasting 80 seconds with late
decelerations. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Stop oxytocin infusion
b. Administer tocolytic medication
c. Reposition the client to her side
d. Apply oxygen by face mask
Answer: a. Stop oxytocin infusion
, 2025-2026 2
Rationale: Uterine tachysystole with late decelerations indicates fetal
hypoxia. First, stop oxytocin to reduce contractions before other
interventions.
Q3. A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should eat an additional 300 calories per day.”
b. “I will take 400 mcg of folic acid daily.”
c. “I should increase my intake of iron-rich foods.”
d. “I will limit fish intake due to mercury risk.”
Answer: a. Additional 300 calories
Rationale: Additional calories are only needed in the second and third
trimesters, not during the first trimester.
Q4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
a. Urine output 50 mL/hr
b. Respiratory rate 10/min
c. Deep tendon reflexes +2
d. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Answer: b. Respiratory rate 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression
(<12/min). The antidote is calcium gluconate.
Q5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client postpartum
following a cesarean birth. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
a. “I should avoid lifting anything heavier than my baby for 2 weeks.”
b. “I will take bubble baths daily to promote healing.”
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c. “I will resume sexual activity in 1 week.”
d. “I should expect lochia for only 3 days.”
Answer: a. Avoid heavy lifting
Rationale: Cesarean recovery requires activity restrictions to prevent
wound complications. Sexual activity resumes at 4–6 weeks.
Q6. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports headaches, blurred vision, and
facial swelling. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
a. Gestational diabetes
b. Preeclampsia
c. Placenta previa
d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: b. Preeclampsia
Rationale: Classic symptoms include hypertension, proteinuria, and
edema with vision changes.
Q7. A client is at 38 weeks gestation and in active labor. The nurse
observes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
a. Place client in knee-chest position
b. Increase IV oxytocin rate
c. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
d. Prepare for immediate delivery
Answer: a. Knee-chest position
Rationale: Variable decelerations indicate cord compression.
Repositioning relieves pressure before other actions.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about nonpharmacological pain
management during labor. Which technique is most effective during the first
, 2025-2026 4
stage of labor?
a. Effleurage and patterned breathing
b. Bearing down with contractions
c. Warm compresses on perineum
d. Pushing in lithotomy position
Answer: a. Effleurage and breathing
Rationale: First-stage pain relief includes relaxation and breathing
techniques, while pushing applies to second stage.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
a. Respiratory rate 70/min
b. Heart rate 150/min
c. Acrocyanosis of extremities
d. Irregular breathing with pauses <15 seconds
Answer: a. Respiratory rate 70/min
Rationale: Tachypnea (>60/min) may indicate respiratory distress and
requires evaluation.
Q10. A nurse is caring for a client 24 hours postpartum. The uterus is
deviated to the right and above the umbilicus. What is the likely cause?
a. Uterine atony
b. Full bladder
c. Endometritis
d. Retained placenta
Answer: b. Full bladder
Rationale: A distended bladder displaces the uterus and increases risk for
hemorrhage.
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
2025–2026 | 100+ VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES, ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and
reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
a. Check the client’s temperature
b. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper
c. Monitor fetal heart rate
d. Perform a sterile vaginal exam
Answer: c. Monitor fetal heart rate
Rationale: The priority is assessing for fetal distress after possible
rupture of membranes. Nitrazine testing and temperature follow, but FHR
is always first.
Q2. A client is in labor and receiving an oxytocin infusion. The nurse
notes contractions occurring every 90 seconds and lasting 80 seconds with late
decelerations. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Stop oxytocin infusion
b. Administer tocolytic medication
c. Reposition the client to her side
d. Apply oxygen by face mask
Answer: a. Stop oxytocin infusion
, 2025-2026 2
Rationale: Uterine tachysystole with late decelerations indicates fetal
hypoxia. First, stop oxytocin to reduce contractions before other
interventions.
Q3. A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should eat an additional 300 calories per day.”
b. “I will take 400 mcg of folic acid daily.”
c. “I should increase my intake of iron-rich foods.”
d. “I will limit fish intake due to mercury risk.”
Answer: a. Additional 300 calories
Rationale: Additional calories are only needed in the second and third
trimesters, not during the first trimester.
Q4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
a. Urine output 50 mL/hr
b. Respiratory rate 10/min
c. Deep tendon reflexes +2
d. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Answer: b. Respiratory rate 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression
(<12/min). The antidote is calcium gluconate.
Q5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client postpartum
following a cesarean birth. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
a. “I should avoid lifting anything heavier than my baby for 2 weeks.”
b. “I will take bubble baths daily to promote healing.”
, 2025-2026 3
c. “I will resume sexual activity in 1 week.”
d. “I should expect lochia for only 3 days.”
Answer: a. Avoid heavy lifting
Rationale: Cesarean recovery requires activity restrictions to prevent
wound complications. Sexual activity resumes at 4–6 weeks.
Q6. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports headaches, blurred vision, and
facial swelling. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
a. Gestational diabetes
b. Preeclampsia
c. Placenta previa
d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: b. Preeclampsia
Rationale: Classic symptoms include hypertension, proteinuria, and
edema with vision changes.
Q7. A client is at 38 weeks gestation and in active labor. The nurse
observes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
a. Place client in knee-chest position
b. Increase IV oxytocin rate
c. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
d. Prepare for immediate delivery
Answer: a. Knee-chest position
Rationale: Variable decelerations indicate cord compression.
Repositioning relieves pressure before other actions.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about nonpharmacological pain
management during labor. Which technique is most effective during the first
, 2025-2026 4
stage of labor?
a. Effleurage and patterned breathing
b. Bearing down with contractions
c. Warm compresses on perineum
d. Pushing in lithotomy position
Answer: a. Effleurage and breathing
Rationale: First-stage pain relief includes relaxation and breathing
techniques, while pushing applies to second stage.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
a. Respiratory rate 70/min
b. Heart rate 150/min
c. Acrocyanosis of extremities
d. Irregular breathing with pauses <15 seconds
Answer: a. Respiratory rate 70/min
Rationale: Tachypnea (>60/min) may indicate respiratory distress and
requires evaluation.
Q10. A nurse is caring for a client 24 hours postpartum. The uterus is
deviated to the right and above the umbilicus. What is the likely cause?
a. Uterine atony
b. Full bladder
c. Endometritis
d. Retained placenta
Answer: b. Full bladder
Rationale: A distended bladder displaces the uterus and increases risk for
hemorrhage.
