English (1001CMD303029240046) *1001CMD303029240046* Test Pattern
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)
Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 03-12-2024
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE -MEA, B, C, D, L, M, N, O, P & Q
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR.
For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.
E3 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :
Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025
Join Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
1LB
, 2 English
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Topic : SYLLABUS-3 f
SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. A thermodynamic system is taken from an
original state (D) to an intermediate state (E) by
1. An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 → 2 as the linear process shown in figure:
shown in the figure, the heat supplied and work
done in the process is Δ Q and Δ W respectively.
The ratio Δ Q : Δ W is
(1) γ : γ – 1 (2) γ
(3) γ – 1 (4) γ – 1 : γ Its volume is then reduced to the original value
2. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink from E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the
is opened, a slight fog forms around the opening. total work done by the gas from D to E and E to F
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes (1) 450 J (2) 1350 J
lowering of temperature which start condensation
of water vapours. (3) – 1350 J (4) 900 J
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 5. Molar specific heat of water is ?
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 9R (4) R
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 6. A carnot's engine works between a source at a
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. temperature of 27°C, and a sink at – 123°C. Its
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. efficiency is :-
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
3. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three (3) 0.75 (4) 0.4
different processes. Process 1 is isobaric process, 7. Oxygen and hydrogen are at the same temperature T.
process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let The ratio of the mean kinetic energy of oxygen
Δ U1, Δ U2 and Δ U3 be the change in internal energy molecules to that of the hydrogen molecules will be:
of the gas is these three processes. Then :
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
8. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 27°C to 927°C. The rms speed of its
molecules becomes:
(1) Δ U1> Δ U2 > Δ U3 (1) Twice
(2) Δ U1 < Δ U2 < Δ U3 (2) Half
(3) Δ U2 < Δ U1 < Δ U3 (3) Four times
(4) Δ U2 < Δ U3 < Δ U1 (4) One-fourth
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1001CMD303029240046 03-12-2024
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9. A gas at 300 K is enclosed in container. Now 14. During an adiabatic process the pressure of the
container is placed on fast moving train while gas is found to be proportional to the cube of the
train is in motion, the temperature of gas : absolute temperature. The ratio CP/CV = γ for
(1) rise above 300 K (2) fall below 300 K the gas is:
(3) remain unchanged (4) become unsteady (1) 3/2 (2) 2
10. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3
closed vessel is increased by 0.5%, the increase 15. If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to
in temperature is 2 K. The initial temperature of 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes
the gas is : gets cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the
(1) 27°C (2) 127°C surroundings is :
(3) 300°C (4) 400°C (1) 30°C (2) 36°C
11. The isothermal diagram of a gas at three (3) 26°C (4) 20°C
different temperature T1, T2 and T3 is shown in 16. A black body has maximum wavelength λ m at
the given figure, Then :- 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K
will be:
16 81
(1) λm (2) λm
81 16
3 2
(3) λm (4) λm
2 3
17. A spring elongated by length ' ℓ ' when a mass 'M'
is suspended to it. Now a tiny mass 'm' is
(1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T1 < T2 > T3
attached and then released, its time period of
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 < T3 oscillation is:-
12. 2 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at (M + m) ℓ
temperature T0 are mixed with 4 mole of another (1) 2 π √
Mg
ideal monoatomic gas at temperature 2 T0 , then mℓ
(2) 2 π √
the temperature of mixture is Mg
5 3 (3) 2 π ℓ /g
√
(1) T0 (2) T0
3 2
4 5 Mℓ
(3) T0 (4) T0 (4) 2 π √
3 4 (m + M)g
13. For O2 gas, Cp – Cv = a and for N2 gas; Cp – Cv = b, 18. The time period of a mass suspended from a
if Cp & Cv are gram specific heat then ratio of a to b spring is 5 sec. The spring is cut into four equal
(a : b) is - parts and the same mass is now suspended from
7 8 one of its parts. The period is now :-
(1) (2)
8 7
(1) 5 s (2) 2.5 s
1
(3) (4) None of these
1 (3) 1.25 s (4) (5/16) s
PHASE - MEA, B, C, D, L, M, N, O, P & Q Join Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
03-12-2024 1001CMD303029240046
1LB
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)
Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 03-12-2024
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE -MEA, B, C, D, L, M, N, O, P & Q
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR.
For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.
E3 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :
Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025
Join Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
1LB
, 2 English
Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
Topic : SYLLABUS-3 f
SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. A thermodynamic system is taken from an
original state (D) to an intermediate state (E) by
1. An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 → 2 as the linear process shown in figure:
shown in the figure, the heat supplied and work
done in the process is Δ Q and Δ W respectively.
The ratio Δ Q : Δ W is
(1) γ : γ – 1 (2) γ
(3) γ – 1 (4) γ – 1 : γ Its volume is then reduced to the original value
2. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink from E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the
is opened, a slight fog forms around the opening. total work done by the gas from D to E and E to F
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes (1) 450 J (2) 1350 J
lowering of temperature which start condensation
of water vapours. (3) – 1350 J (4) 900 J
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 5. Molar specific heat of water is ?
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 9R (4) R
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 6. A carnot's engine works between a source at a
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. temperature of 27°C, and a sink at – 123°C. Its
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. efficiency is :-
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
3. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three (3) 0.75 (4) 0.4
different processes. Process 1 is isobaric process, 7. Oxygen and hydrogen are at the same temperature T.
process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let The ratio of the mean kinetic energy of oxygen
Δ U1, Δ U2 and Δ U3 be the change in internal energy molecules to that of the hydrogen molecules will be:
of the gas is these three processes. Then :
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
8. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 27°C to 927°C. The rms speed of its
molecules becomes:
(1) Δ U1> Δ U2 > Δ U3 (1) Twice
(2) Δ U1 < Δ U2 < Δ U3 (2) Half
(3) Δ U2 < Δ U1 < Δ U3 (3) Four times
(4) Δ U2 < Δ U3 < Δ U1 (4) One-fourth
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1001CMD303029240046 03-12-2024
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, English 3
Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
9. A gas at 300 K is enclosed in container. Now 14. During an adiabatic process the pressure of the
container is placed on fast moving train while gas is found to be proportional to the cube of the
train is in motion, the temperature of gas : absolute temperature. The ratio CP/CV = γ for
(1) rise above 300 K (2) fall below 300 K the gas is:
(3) remain unchanged (4) become unsteady (1) 3/2 (2) 2
10. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3
closed vessel is increased by 0.5%, the increase 15. If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to
in temperature is 2 K. The initial temperature of 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes
the gas is : gets cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the
(1) 27°C (2) 127°C surroundings is :
(3) 300°C (4) 400°C (1) 30°C (2) 36°C
11. The isothermal diagram of a gas at three (3) 26°C (4) 20°C
different temperature T1, T2 and T3 is shown in 16. A black body has maximum wavelength λ m at
the given figure, Then :- 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K
will be:
16 81
(1) λm (2) λm
81 16
3 2
(3) λm (4) λm
2 3
17. A spring elongated by length ' ℓ ' when a mass 'M'
is suspended to it. Now a tiny mass 'm' is
(1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T1 < T2 > T3
attached and then released, its time period of
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 < T3 oscillation is:-
12. 2 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at (M + m) ℓ
temperature T0 are mixed with 4 mole of another (1) 2 π √
Mg
ideal monoatomic gas at temperature 2 T0 , then mℓ
(2) 2 π √
the temperature of mixture is Mg
5 3 (3) 2 π ℓ /g
√
(1) T0 (2) T0
3 2
4 5 Mℓ
(3) T0 (4) T0 (4) 2 π √
3 4 (m + M)g
13. For O2 gas, Cp – Cv = a and for N2 gas; Cp – Cv = b, 18. The time period of a mass suspended from a
if Cp & Cv are gram specific heat then ratio of a to b spring is 5 sec. The spring is cut into four equal
(a : b) is - parts and the same mass is now suspended from
7 8 one of its parts. The period is now :-
(1) (2)
8 7
(1) 5 s (2) 2.5 s
1
(3) (4) None of these
1 (3) 1.25 s (4) (5/16) s
PHASE - MEA, B, C, D, L, M, N, O, P & Q Join Telegram: @NEETxNOAH
03-12-2024 1001CMD303029240046
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