AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM REAL EXAM WITH 280 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 2025/2026 (VERIFIED ANSWERS) A+GARDE
A 60-year-old patient sustained a comminuted left calcaneal fracture after falling from a
ladder. Initial ED treatment consisted of diagnostic radiology studies and surgical ORIF
was performed 9 days later. The patient now presents to the orthopedic clinic for
evaluation and cast change. The fracture is healing normally. What ICD-10-CM code(s)
is/are reported?
a. S92.002A b. S92.002A, W11.XXA c. S92.002D d. S92.002D, W11.XXD - ANSWER - d.
S92.002D, W11.XXD
Rationale: A comminuted fracture is one in which a bone is broken, splintered, or crushed
into several pieces; therefore, it is considered displaced. Look in the ICD-10-CM
Alphabetic Index for Fracture, traumatic/tarsal bone(s)/calcaneus directing you to
subcategory S92.00-. The Tabular List indicates seven characters are needed to complete
the code. The 6th character 2 indicates laterality as left. The patient has completed the
initial fracture treatment phase and is healing normally; therefore, the 7th character D is
chosen for subsequent encounter for fracture with routine healing. Cast change and
removal are listed as examples of fracture aftercare in the ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.19. c.1.
ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.20.a.2 instructs you to use the external cause code for the length
of the treatment. In the ICD-10-CM External Cause of Injuries Index look for Fall,
falling/from, off, out of/ladder directing you to category W11. In the Tabular List, there is a
note that the code requires seven characters. The 4th, 5th, and 6th characters are reported
with placeholder Xs and the 7th character chosen is D for subsequent encounter. The
complete code is W11.XXXD. Verify code selection in the Tabular list.
guideline I.C.19. c.1. ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.20.a.2 instructs you to use the external
cause code for the length of the treatment.
A 63-year-old gentleman comes into the ED complaining of the urge to urinate but has
been unable to empty his bladder. The provider decides to place a Foley catheter to relieve
the urine retention due to prostate hypertrophy. What is the code selection for the
procedure and diagnosis codes?
a. 51701, N40.1, R33.9 b. 51702, N40.1, R33.8 c. 51701, R33.8, N40.1 d. 51702, R33.9,
N40.1 - ANSWER - b. 51702, N40.1, R33.8
A 65-year-old patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. Patient is scheduled for a
diagnostic VATS (Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery). Under general anesthesia he was
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placed in left lateral decubitus position and a thoracoscope was inserted through a port
site. The VATS exploration immediately revealed a mass of the right upper lobe. A biopsy
was performed and sent to pathology. Results from pathology revealed small cell
carcinoma. The decision was made to perform VATS and remove the upper lobe of the right
lung. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?
a. 32480 b. 32663 c. 32663, 32607-51 d. 32671, 32609-51 - ANSWER - b. 32663
A 65-year-old was admitted in the hospital two days ago and is being examined today by
his primary care physician, who has been seeing him since he has been admitted. Primary
care physician is checking for any improvements or if the condition is worsening. CHIEF
COMPLAINT: CHF
INTERVAL HISTORY: CHF symptoms worsened since yesterday. Now has some resting
dyspnea. HTN remains poorly controlled. Also, I'm concerned about his CKD, which has
worsened, most likely due to cardio-renal syndrome.
IMPRESSION:
1. Severe exacerbation of CHF
2. Poorly controlled HTN
3. Worsening ARF due to cardio-renal syndrome
PLAN:
1. Increase BUMEX to 2 mg IV Q6.
2. Give 500 mg IV DIURIL times one.
3. Re-check usual labs in a.m. Total time: 20 minutes. What E/M category is used for
this visit?
a. Initial Hospital or Observation b. Established Patient Office/Outpatient c. Subsequent
Hospital or Observation d. Inpatient Consultation - ANSWER - c. Subsequent Hospital or
Observation Visit (99231-33233)
A baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The provider performed a right
heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. 93581, Q21.0 b. 93593, 93581-59, Q21.0 c. 93593, Q20.4 d. 93593, 93581-59, Q21.9 -
ANSWER - a. 93581, Q21.0
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A condition where the thyroid is overactive is called:
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Panhypopituitarism c. Ketosis d. Thyroiditis - ANSWER - a.
Thyrotoxicosis
A couple with the inability to conceive has fertility testing. The semen specimen is tested
for volume, count, motility and a differential is calculated. The findings indicate infertility
due to oligospermia. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. 89320, N46.11 b. 89264, N46.11 c. 89257, Z31.41 d. 89310, 89320, Z31.41 - ANSWER - a.
89320, N46.11
A female patient has osteoarthritis localized in the left hip joint due to senile osteoporosis.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. M16.7, M16.12, M81.0 b. M16.12, M81.8 c. M16.7, M81.0 d. M16.12, M81.6 - ANSWER -
c. M16.7, M81.0
A final diagnosis for a patient in the ER is COPD with acute bronchitis due to echovirus.
How is this diagnosis coded?
a. J44.9, J40 b. J44.9, J20.7 c. J44.0, J20.7 d. J40, J20.9 - ANSWER - c. J44.0, J20.7
A form of milk produced the first few days after giving birth is:
a. Prolactin b. Colostrum c. Lactose d. Chorion - ANSWER - b. Colostrum
A parent brings her child to the ED. She thinks she swallowed a small toy figure. A radiology
exam from the nose to the rectum is performed. The foreign body is not located. What
CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the radiology services?
a. 43235, 44363 b. 76010 c. 70160, 70370, 71045, 74240, 74248 d. 70160, 70370, 71045,
43235, 44363 - ANSWER - b. 76010
A patient has a fine needle aspiration with the specimen sent to cytopathology for
examination. Once the specimen is reviewed, it is found to be inadequate to perform the
test. A new specimen must be obtained which is then examined and a diagnosis is
confirmed. What modifier is appropriate to indicate that two specimens were examined?
a. no modifier b. 77 c. 91 d. 76 - ANSWER - a. no modifier
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Rationale: The first test cannot be billed if there is not a sufficient specimen to perform the
examination.
A patient is prescribed anticonvulsant medication for her seizures. She returns to her
doctor three days later with nausea and rash from taking the anticonvulsant medication.
The provider notes that this is a drug reaction to an anticonvulsant and changes the
medication. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. L27.0, R11.0, T42.75XA b. L27.0, R11.2, T42.71XA c. R20, R11.2, T42.71XA d. R21, R11.0,
T42.75XA - ANSWER - a. L27.0, R11.0, T42.75XA
A patient is seen for hypertension. Her provider has her on prescriptions, but her blood
pressure is not yet at goal. The patient does not exhibit any symptoms. When referring to
the number and complexity of problems addressed, what type of problem is this
considered?
a. Chronic illness with severe exacerbation , progression, or side effects of treatment b.
Stable, chronic illness c. Acute or chronic illness or injury that poses a threat to life or
bodily functions d. Chronic illness with exacerbation, progression, or side effects of
treatment - ANSWER - d. Chronic illness with exacerbation, progression, or side effects of
treatment
Rational: HTN is a chronic illness, Not yet within goal BP so not stable
A patient on estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) receives a DXA study of the hips. What is
the CPT® code reported for the bone density study?
a. 77078 b. 77077 c. 77080 d. 77081 - ANSWER - c. 77080
A patient presents for esophageal dilation. The physician begins dilation by using a bougie.
This attempt was unsuccessful. The physician then dilates the esophagus
transendoscopic ally using a balloon (25mm). What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
a. 43220, 43450-52 b. 43220 c. 43450, 46220 d. 43450-53, 43220 - ANSWER - b. 43220
A patient presents to the ED with weakness on the left side and aphasia. Tests are ordered
and the patient is admitted with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). What ICD-10-CM
code(s) is/are reported?
a. I63.50 b. I63.9 c. R53.1, R47.01 d. I67.89 - ANSWER - b. I63.9