NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam 2025| Actual
Complete Questions and Verified
Answers and Explanations for
Guaranteed Pass
1. A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria, and a yellow
discharge. On exam, you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact.
The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Bacterial vaginosis
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Yeast infection
d) Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: b) Chlamydia infection
Explanation: Postcoital spotting, dysuria, yellow discharge, and a friable cervix are
classic signs of chlamydia, a common sexually transmitted infection caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis.
2. One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is:
a) Endometriosis
b) Polycystic ovary syndrome
c) Premature ovarian failure
d) Uterine fibroids
Correct Answer: b) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation: Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS), characterized by ovulatory dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic
ovaries, a leading cause of infertility.
3. HIV testing is indicated for a(n):
a) Asymptomatic 25-year-old with no risk factors
b) Sexually active adolescent with multiple partners
c) 40-year-old with a history of hypertension
d) 60-year-old with no sexual activity
Correct Answer: b) Sexually active adolescent with multiple partners
Explanation: HIV testing is recommended for individuals at high risk, such as sexually
active adolescents with multiple partners, due to increased risk of exposure.
4. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with
sickle cell anemia?
a) Combined oral contraceptives
b) Progestin-only pills
, c) Copper IUD
d) Transdermal patch
Correct Answer: b) Progestin-only pills
Explanation: Progestin-only pills are safer for women with sickle cell anemia, as
combined hormonal contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolism, a concern in
this population.
5. A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at risk for:
a) Increased bleeding
b) Metronidazole toxicity
c) Decreased metronidazole efficacy
d) Allergic reaction
Correct Answer: b) Metronidazole toxicity
Explanation: Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of metronidazole, potentially leading to
increased metronidazole levels and toxicity.
6. A 58-year-old woman complains of severe vulvar pruritus. On examination of the
vulva, you note thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as
maculopapular lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be:
a) Lichen sclerosus
b) Vulvar candidiasis
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Psoriasis
Correct Answer: a) Lichen sclerosus
Explanation: Lichen sclerosus presents with vulvar pruritus, thinning of the epidermis,
hypopigmentation, and maculopapular lesions, often in postmenopausal women.
7. Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI places
her in which of the following categories?
a) Underweight
b) Normal weight
c) Overweight
d) Obese
Correct Answer: c) Overweight
Explanation: Waist circumference is a useful measure in overweight individuals (BMI
25–29.9) to assess central obesity and cardiometabolic risk.
8. The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD may be a better choice than the copper-releasing
IUD for a woman who:
a) Has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding
b) Is allergic to copper
c) Has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
d) Prefers frequent menses
Correct Answer: a) Has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding
Explanation: The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD reduces menstrual bleeding and is
Complete Questions and Verified
Answers and Explanations for
Guaranteed Pass
1. A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria, and a yellow
discharge. On exam, you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact.
The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Bacterial vaginosis
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Yeast infection
d) Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: b) Chlamydia infection
Explanation: Postcoital spotting, dysuria, yellow discharge, and a friable cervix are
classic signs of chlamydia, a common sexually transmitted infection caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis.
2. One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is:
a) Endometriosis
b) Polycystic ovary syndrome
c) Premature ovarian failure
d) Uterine fibroids
Correct Answer: b) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation: Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS), characterized by ovulatory dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic
ovaries, a leading cause of infertility.
3. HIV testing is indicated for a(n):
a) Asymptomatic 25-year-old with no risk factors
b) Sexually active adolescent with multiple partners
c) 40-year-old with a history of hypertension
d) 60-year-old with no sexual activity
Correct Answer: b) Sexually active adolescent with multiple partners
Explanation: HIV testing is recommended for individuals at high risk, such as sexually
active adolescents with multiple partners, due to increased risk of exposure.
4. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with
sickle cell anemia?
a) Combined oral contraceptives
b) Progestin-only pills
, c) Copper IUD
d) Transdermal patch
Correct Answer: b) Progestin-only pills
Explanation: Progestin-only pills are safer for women with sickle cell anemia, as
combined hormonal contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolism, a concern in
this population.
5. A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at risk for:
a) Increased bleeding
b) Metronidazole toxicity
c) Decreased metronidazole efficacy
d) Allergic reaction
Correct Answer: b) Metronidazole toxicity
Explanation: Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of metronidazole, potentially leading to
increased metronidazole levels and toxicity.
6. A 58-year-old woman complains of severe vulvar pruritus. On examination of the
vulva, you note thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as
maculopapular lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be:
a) Lichen sclerosus
b) Vulvar candidiasis
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Psoriasis
Correct Answer: a) Lichen sclerosus
Explanation: Lichen sclerosus presents with vulvar pruritus, thinning of the epidermis,
hypopigmentation, and maculopapular lesions, often in postmenopausal women.
7. Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI places
her in which of the following categories?
a) Underweight
b) Normal weight
c) Overweight
d) Obese
Correct Answer: c) Overweight
Explanation: Waist circumference is a useful measure in overweight individuals (BMI
25–29.9) to assess central obesity and cardiometabolic risk.
8. The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD may be a better choice than the copper-releasing
IUD for a woman who:
a) Has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding
b) Is allergic to copper
c) Has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
d) Prefers frequent menses
Correct Answer: a) Has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding
Explanation: The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD reduces menstrual bleeding and is
