NR 602 CEA Midterm Exam | Chamberlain
University | 2025 | Actual Exam Questions
with Verified Answers
1. A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification?
a) CIN 1
b) CIN 2
c) CIN 3
d) Invasive carcinoma
Correct Answer: a) CIN 1
Explanation: Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in the Bethesda System
corresponds to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 1 (CIN 1), indicating mild
dysplasia.
2. A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection
should have what as follow-up?
a) Immediate colposcopy
b) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
c) HPV testing in 6 months
d) Excisional biopsy
Correct Answer: b) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
Explanation: For ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) with
negative HPV, guidelines recommend repeating the Pap smear in 1 year, as the risk of
high-grade lesions is low.
3. A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and has
had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with HPV testing
today, when should she have the next cervical cancer screening?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) No further screening needed
Correct Answer: c) 5 years
Explanation: For women aged 30–65 with normal Pap and negative HPV co-testing, the
USPSTF recommends cervical cancer screening every 5 years.
4. Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive
HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next?
a) Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
b) Colposcopy
c) HPV genotyping
, d) Observation only
Correct Answer: b) Colposcopy
Explanation: A positive HPV test with a normal Pap smear in a woman under 30
warrants colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities, as HPV positivity indicates
increased risk.
5. A 9-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP
was 2 weeks ago, says it was normal. On exam, there’s erythema of external
genitalia with a small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue
cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most
appropriate treatment?
a) Metronidazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Clindamycin
d) No treatment needed
Correct Answer: b) Fluconazole
Explanation: Budding hyphae on wet prep indicate vulvovaginal candidiasis, likely
triggered by recent antibiotic use; fluconazole is an effective antifungal treatment.
6. A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health
except for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals a tender
vulvovaginal area with edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the
most likely cause?
a) Bacterial vaginosis
b) Trichomoniasis
c) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
d) Chlamydia
Correct Answer: c) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation: Vaginal itching, non-malodorous white patches, and recent antibiotic use
are classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis, caused by Candida overgrowth.
7. An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is
normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out.
What would necessitate further evaluation?
a) Normal menstrual history
b) Amenorrhea for 6 months
c) Normal BMI
d) No symptoms of hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: b) Amenorrhea for 6 months
Explanation: Secondary amenorrhea lasting 6 months or more warrants further
evaluation to identify underlying causes such as PCOS, thyroid dysfunction, or
hypothalamic issues.
8. Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
a) Absence of menses by age 15 with secondary sexual characteristics
University | 2025 | Actual Exam Questions
with Verified Answers
1. A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification?
a) CIN 1
b) CIN 2
c) CIN 3
d) Invasive carcinoma
Correct Answer: a) CIN 1
Explanation: Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in the Bethesda System
corresponds to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 1 (CIN 1), indicating mild
dysplasia.
2. A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection
should have what as follow-up?
a) Immediate colposcopy
b) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
c) HPV testing in 6 months
d) Excisional biopsy
Correct Answer: b) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
Explanation: For ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) with
negative HPV, guidelines recommend repeating the Pap smear in 1 year, as the risk of
high-grade lesions is low.
3. A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and has
had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with HPV testing
today, when should she have the next cervical cancer screening?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) No further screening needed
Correct Answer: c) 5 years
Explanation: For women aged 30–65 with normal Pap and negative HPV co-testing, the
USPSTF recommends cervical cancer screening every 5 years.
4. Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive
HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next?
a) Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
b) Colposcopy
c) HPV genotyping
, d) Observation only
Correct Answer: b) Colposcopy
Explanation: A positive HPV test with a normal Pap smear in a woman under 30
warrants colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities, as HPV positivity indicates
increased risk.
5. A 9-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP
was 2 weeks ago, says it was normal. On exam, there’s erythema of external
genitalia with a small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue
cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most
appropriate treatment?
a) Metronidazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Clindamycin
d) No treatment needed
Correct Answer: b) Fluconazole
Explanation: Budding hyphae on wet prep indicate vulvovaginal candidiasis, likely
triggered by recent antibiotic use; fluconazole is an effective antifungal treatment.
6. A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health
except for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals a tender
vulvovaginal area with edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the
most likely cause?
a) Bacterial vaginosis
b) Trichomoniasis
c) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
d) Chlamydia
Correct Answer: c) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation: Vaginal itching, non-malodorous white patches, and recent antibiotic use
are classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis, caused by Candida overgrowth.
7. An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is
normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out.
What would necessitate further evaluation?
a) Normal menstrual history
b) Amenorrhea for 6 months
c) Normal BMI
d) No symptoms of hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: b) Amenorrhea for 6 months
Explanation: Secondary amenorrhea lasting 6 months or more warrants further
evaluation to identify underlying causes such as PCOS, thyroid dysfunction, or
hypothalamic issues.
8. Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
a) Absence of menses by age 15 with secondary sexual characteristics
