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PROGRESSIVE CARE RN A EXAM PREP 2025/2026 – 140
UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS,100%
CORRECT ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is admitted with
severe dyspnea and pulmonary edema. The priority intervention is:
A. Administer IV diuretics and place in high Fowler’s position
B. Restrict oral fluids immediately
C. Encourage ambulation to improve circulation
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: A
Explanation: IV diuretics reduce preload and pulmonary congestion.
Upright positioning facilitates breathing.
2. A patient with a chest tube for pneumothorax suddenly has no
bubbling in the water seal chamber. The nurse should first:
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately
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B. Check for kinks or obstruction in the tubing
C. Call the provider without assessment
D. Remove the chest tube
Answer: B
Explanation: No bubbling may mean tube obstruction; assess patency first.
3. Which ECG change is most concerning in a patient with
hypokalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. U waves and flattened T waves
C. ST-segment elevation
D. Prolonged PR interval only
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypokalemia produces U waves and flattened T waves,
increasing arrhythmia risk.
4. Which finding requires immediate action in a patient receiving IV
heparin?
A. Mild bruising at injection site
B. Hematuria and abdominal pain
C. Controlled aPTT level
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D. Slight gum bleeding
Answer: B
Explanation: Hematuria and abdominal pain suggest internal bleeding, a
serious complication.
5. In progressive care, which patient is most appropriate for transfer
from ICU?
A. Patient requiring continuous vasopressor infusion
B. Patient with stable hemodynamics on minimal oxygen
C. Patient in septic shock on multiple drips
D. Patient on mechanical ventilation with FiO₂ 100%
Answer: B
Explanation: Stable patients needing close monitoring but not ICU-level
care belong in PCU.
6. Which intervention helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia
(VAP)?
A. Keeping head of bed flat
B. Oral care with chlorhexidine
C. Avoiding suctioning
D. Turning patient only once per day
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Answer: B
Explanation: Oral care and head elevation reduce VAP risk.
7. Which assessment finding suggests cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm, flushed skin with bounding pulses
B. Hypotension, cool clammy skin, weak pulses
C. Elevated BP, bradycardia, warm extremities
D. Hypertension and tachypnea
Answer: B
Explanation: Cardiogenic shock reduces tissue perfusion, leading to
hypotension and cool skin.
8. A patient on a nitroglycerin infusion develops a headache. The nurse
should:
A. Discontinue infusion immediately
B. Administer ordered acetaminophen for symptom relief
C. Reduce infusion rate without notifying provider
D. Ignore as an insignificant side effect
Answer: B
Explanation: Headache is common with nitrates; treat symptom unless
severe hypotension develops.
PROGRESSIVE CARE RN A EXAM PREP 2025/2026 – 140
UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS,100%
CORRECT ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is admitted with
severe dyspnea and pulmonary edema. The priority intervention is:
A. Administer IV diuretics and place in high Fowler’s position
B. Restrict oral fluids immediately
C. Encourage ambulation to improve circulation
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: A
Explanation: IV diuretics reduce preload and pulmonary congestion.
Upright positioning facilitates breathing.
2. A patient with a chest tube for pneumothorax suddenly has no
bubbling in the water seal chamber. The nurse should first:
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately
,2|Page
B. Check for kinks or obstruction in the tubing
C. Call the provider without assessment
D. Remove the chest tube
Answer: B
Explanation: No bubbling may mean tube obstruction; assess patency first.
3. Which ECG change is most concerning in a patient with
hypokalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. U waves and flattened T waves
C. ST-segment elevation
D. Prolonged PR interval only
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypokalemia produces U waves and flattened T waves,
increasing arrhythmia risk.
4. Which finding requires immediate action in a patient receiving IV
heparin?
A. Mild bruising at injection site
B. Hematuria and abdominal pain
C. Controlled aPTT level
,3|Page
D. Slight gum bleeding
Answer: B
Explanation: Hematuria and abdominal pain suggest internal bleeding, a
serious complication.
5. In progressive care, which patient is most appropriate for transfer
from ICU?
A. Patient requiring continuous vasopressor infusion
B. Patient with stable hemodynamics on minimal oxygen
C. Patient in septic shock on multiple drips
D. Patient on mechanical ventilation with FiO₂ 100%
Answer: B
Explanation: Stable patients needing close monitoring but not ICU-level
care belong in PCU.
6. Which intervention helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia
(VAP)?
A. Keeping head of bed flat
B. Oral care with chlorhexidine
C. Avoiding suctioning
D. Turning patient only once per day
, 4|Page
Answer: B
Explanation: Oral care and head elevation reduce VAP risk.
7. Which assessment finding suggests cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm, flushed skin with bounding pulses
B. Hypotension, cool clammy skin, weak pulses
C. Elevated BP, bradycardia, warm extremities
D. Hypertension and tachypnea
Answer: B
Explanation: Cardiogenic shock reduces tissue perfusion, leading to
hypotension and cool skin.
8. A patient on a nitroglycerin infusion develops a headache. The nurse
should:
A. Discontinue infusion immediately
B. Administer ordered acetaminophen for symptom relief
C. Reduce infusion rate without notifying provider
D. Ignore as an insignificant side effect
Answer: B
Explanation: Headache is common with nitrates; treat symptom unless
severe hypotension develops.
