HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2025/2026 TESTBANK, PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE (ACTUAL TEST) QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis
found? - correct answer Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement
affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - correct answer
Ankyloglossia
When is tooth eruption complete? - correct answer Tooth has made contact with its
antagonists in opposing jaw
When does mixed dentition begin? - correct answer Eruption of first permanent tooth
How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - correct answer 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a
maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - correct answer The first statement is true
and the second is false
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - correct answer reduced
permeability
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second
premolar? - correct answer Distolingual
Which is true regarding the height of contour? - correct answer Greatest elevation of tooth
either incisocervically or occlusocervically
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - correct
answer 14 primary; 10 permanent
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - correct answer line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the
incised edge or angle? - correct answer IV
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - correct answer Oblique
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - correct
answer Mandibular
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - correct
answer VII
,Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - correct answer mandibular
foramen on medial surface of mandible
Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - correct answer Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - correct answer Synovial
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary
gland secretion? - correct answer autonomic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated
enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? -
correct answer First statement is true second statement is false
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - correct
answer Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria - correct answer grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - correct answer capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - correct answer Psychrophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of - correct answer gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - correct answer enter host cells before they can
multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? - correct answer Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? - correct answer Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? -
correct answer I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? - correct answer Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - correct answer C. Nizoral
, Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - correct answer Repaired congenital heart
disease
It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart
disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic
predication? - correct answer Renal dialysis shunt
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - correct answer take medication
four times a day
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" -
correct answer schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - correct
answer Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? -
correct answer Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - correct answer Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - correct answer
Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - correct answer statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps
absorb calcium. - correct answer Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb
calcium.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - correct answer Steak, brown rice, and corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli,
strawberries, and cantaloupe
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - correct answer Iron
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE (ACTUAL TEST) QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis
found? - correct answer Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement
affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - correct answer
Ankyloglossia
When is tooth eruption complete? - correct answer Tooth has made contact with its
antagonists in opposing jaw
When does mixed dentition begin? - correct answer Eruption of first permanent tooth
How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - correct answer 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a
maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - correct answer The first statement is true
and the second is false
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - correct answer reduced
permeability
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second
premolar? - correct answer Distolingual
Which is true regarding the height of contour? - correct answer Greatest elevation of tooth
either incisocervically or occlusocervically
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - correct
answer 14 primary; 10 permanent
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - correct answer line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the
incised edge or angle? - correct answer IV
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - correct answer Oblique
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - correct
answer Mandibular
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - correct
answer VII
,Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - correct answer mandibular
foramen on medial surface of mandible
Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - correct answer Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - correct answer Synovial
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary
gland secretion? - correct answer autonomic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated
enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? -
correct answer First statement is true second statement is false
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - correct
answer Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria - correct answer grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - correct answer capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - correct answer Psychrophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of - correct answer gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - correct answer enter host cells before they can
multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? - correct answer Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? - correct answer Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? -
correct answer I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? - correct answer Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - correct answer C. Nizoral
, Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - correct answer Repaired congenital heart
disease
It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart
disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic
predication? - correct answer Renal dialysis shunt
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - correct answer take medication
four times a day
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" -
correct answer schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - correct
answer Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? -
correct answer Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - correct answer Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - correct answer
Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - correct answer statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps
absorb calcium. - correct answer Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb
calcium.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - correct answer Steak, brown rice, and corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli,
strawberries, and cantaloupe
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - correct answer Iron
