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NURS-6512N / NURS 6512 Advanced
Health Assessment Midterm Exam
2025/2026 – Actual Exam with Correct
Verified Answers (Graded A)
Question 1
During a health history interview, a client reports intermittent chest pain for 2 weeks. What is the
nurse’s priority follow-up question?
A) “What medications are you taking?”
B) “Can you describe the pain’s location, quality, and duration?”
C) “Have you had a recent change in diet?”
D) “Do you have a family history of heart disease?”
B) “Can you describe the pain’s location, quality, and duration?”
Rationale: Chest pain requires immediate exploration using the OLD CARTS mnemonic
(Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Associated symptoms, Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity) to assess for life-threatening conditions like myocardial infarction. While medications
(A), diet (C), and family history (D) are relevant, characterizing the pain is the priority to guide
further assessment.
Question 2
A nurse is performing a respiratory assessment. Which finding indicates a normal breath sound?
A) Crackles in the lower lobes
B) Wheezes in the upper lobes
C) Vesicular sounds over the lung periphery
D) Rhonchi in the bronchi
C) Vesicular sounds over the lung periphery
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds (soft, low-pitched, heard on inspiration and early
expiration) are normal over the lung periphery. Crackles (A) indicate fluid or atelectasis,
wheezes (B) suggest airway obstruction, and rhonchi (D) imply mucus in larger airways, all
abnormal findings.
, 2
Question 3
When assessing a client’s cranial nerve function, which test evaluates cranial nerve II?
A) Test visual acuity with a Snellen chart
B) Assess pupil response to light
C) Check for facial symmetry
D) Evaluate tongue movement
A) Test visual acuity with a Snellen chart
Rationale: Cranial nerve II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, and testing visual acuity
with a Snellen chart directly assesses its function. Pupil response (B) tests cranial nerve III.
Facial symmetry (C) involves cranial nerve VII. Tongue movement (D) tests cranial nerve XII.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s abdomen. Which finding suggests ascites?
A) Tympany on percussion
B) Shifting dullness on percussion
C) Hyperactive bowel sounds
D) Rigid abdomen
B) Shifting dullness on percussion
Rationale: Shifting dullness (dullness in dependent areas that shifts with position change)
indicates fluid in the peritoneal cavity, consistent with ascites. Tympany (A) suggests air.
Hyperactive bowel sounds (C) indicate increased motility. A rigid abdomen (D) suggests
peritonitis.
Question 5
A client presents with a red, itchy rash on the arm. Which question is most relevant to the skin
assessment?
A) “Have you changed your laundry detergent recently?”
B) “Do you have a history of hypertension?”
C) “When did you last have a tetanus shot?”
D) “Are you taking any new medications?”
A) “Have you changed your laundry detergent recently?”
Rationale: A red, itchy rash may indicate contact dermatitis, often triggered by irritants like
laundry detergent. Hypertension (B) is unrelated to skin rashes. Tetanus shots (C) are relevant for
wounds, not rashes. Medications (D) are a possible cause but less specific than environmental
irritants in this context.
, 3
Question 6
When performing a cardiovascular assessment, where should the nurse place the stethoscope to
auscultate the aortic area?
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border
B) Second intercostal space, left sternal border
C) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Rationale: The aortic area is auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border,
where aortic valve sounds are best heard. The left second intercostal space (B) is for the
pulmonic area. The fifth intercostal space (C) is for the mitral area. The fourth intercostal space
(D) is not a primary auscultation site.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client’s peripheral pulses. Which finding indicates a normal pulse?
A) 2+ and equal bilaterally
B) 1+ and thready
C) 3+ and bounding
D) Absent pulses
A) 2+ and equal bilaterally
Rationale: A 2+ pulse is normal, indicating a strong, easily palpable pulse that is equal
bilaterally. A 1+ thready pulse (B) suggests poor perfusion. A 3+ bounding pulse (C) may
indicate hyperdynamic circulation. Absent pulses (D) are abnormal and suggest occlusion.
Question 8
During a neurological assessment, a nurse tests the client’s deep tendon reflexes. Which response
indicates a normal finding?
A) No reflex response (0)
B) Weak response (1+)
C) Normal brisk response (2+)
D) Hyperactive response (4+)
C) Normal brisk response (2+)
Rationale: A 2+ reflex response is normal, indicating a brisk but expected reaction. No
NURS-6512N / NURS 6512 Advanced
Health Assessment Midterm Exam
2025/2026 – Actual Exam with Correct
Verified Answers (Graded A)
Question 1
During a health history interview, a client reports intermittent chest pain for 2 weeks. What is the
nurse’s priority follow-up question?
A) “What medications are you taking?”
B) “Can you describe the pain’s location, quality, and duration?”
C) “Have you had a recent change in diet?”
D) “Do you have a family history of heart disease?”
B) “Can you describe the pain’s location, quality, and duration?”
Rationale: Chest pain requires immediate exploration using the OLD CARTS mnemonic
(Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Associated symptoms, Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity) to assess for life-threatening conditions like myocardial infarction. While medications
(A), diet (C), and family history (D) are relevant, characterizing the pain is the priority to guide
further assessment.
Question 2
A nurse is performing a respiratory assessment. Which finding indicates a normal breath sound?
A) Crackles in the lower lobes
B) Wheezes in the upper lobes
C) Vesicular sounds over the lung periphery
D) Rhonchi in the bronchi
C) Vesicular sounds over the lung periphery
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds (soft, low-pitched, heard on inspiration and early
expiration) are normal over the lung periphery. Crackles (A) indicate fluid or atelectasis,
wheezes (B) suggest airway obstruction, and rhonchi (D) imply mucus in larger airways, all
abnormal findings.
, 2
Question 3
When assessing a client’s cranial nerve function, which test evaluates cranial nerve II?
A) Test visual acuity with a Snellen chart
B) Assess pupil response to light
C) Check for facial symmetry
D) Evaluate tongue movement
A) Test visual acuity with a Snellen chart
Rationale: Cranial nerve II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, and testing visual acuity
with a Snellen chart directly assesses its function. Pupil response (B) tests cranial nerve III.
Facial symmetry (C) involves cranial nerve VII. Tongue movement (D) tests cranial nerve XII.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s abdomen. Which finding suggests ascites?
A) Tympany on percussion
B) Shifting dullness on percussion
C) Hyperactive bowel sounds
D) Rigid abdomen
B) Shifting dullness on percussion
Rationale: Shifting dullness (dullness in dependent areas that shifts with position change)
indicates fluid in the peritoneal cavity, consistent with ascites. Tympany (A) suggests air.
Hyperactive bowel sounds (C) indicate increased motility. A rigid abdomen (D) suggests
peritonitis.
Question 5
A client presents with a red, itchy rash on the arm. Which question is most relevant to the skin
assessment?
A) “Have you changed your laundry detergent recently?”
B) “Do you have a history of hypertension?”
C) “When did you last have a tetanus shot?”
D) “Are you taking any new medications?”
A) “Have you changed your laundry detergent recently?”
Rationale: A red, itchy rash may indicate contact dermatitis, often triggered by irritants like
laundry detergent. Hypertension (B) is unrelated to skin rashes. Tetanus shots (C) are relevant for
wounds, not rashes. Medications (D) are a possible cause but less specific than environmental
irritants in this context.
, 3
Question 6
When performing a cardiovascular assessment, where should the nurse place the stethoscope to
auscultate the aortic area?
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border
B) Second intercostal space, left sternal border
C) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Rationale: The aortic area is auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border,
where aortic valve sounds are best heard. The left second intercostal space (B) is for the
pulmonic area. The fifth intercostal space (C) is for the mitral area. The fourth intercostal space
(D) is not a primary auscultation site.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client’s peripheral pulses. Which finding indicates a normal pulse?
A) 2+ and equal bilaterally
B) 1+ and thready
C) 3+ and bounding
D) Absent pulses
A) 2+ and equal bilaterally
Rationale: A 2+ pulse is normal, indicating a strong, easily palpable pulse that is equal
bilaterally. A 1+ thready pulse (B) suggests poor perfusion. A 3+ bounding pulse (C) may
indicate hyperdynamic circulation. Absent pulses (D) are abnormal and suggest occlusion.
Question 8
During a neurological assessment, a nurse tests the client’s deep tendon reflexes. Which response
indicates a normal finding?
A) No reflex response (0)
B) Weak response (1+)
C) Normal brisk response (2+)
D) Hyperactive response (4+)
C) Normal brisk response (2+)
Rationale: A 2+ reflex response is normal, indicating a brisk but expected reaction. No
