TARGET NEET 2025
MOCK TEST - 1
www.cherrytop.in
Important instructions to candidate
1.In case of usage of signs and symbols in the questions, the regular textbook connotation should be considered unless
stated otherwise.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
3. 45 questions in each subject. (a) Questions in each subject, Physics - (Question Nos – 1 to 45), Chemistry – (Ques-
tion Nos – 46 to 90), Biology: Botany – (Question Nos – 91 to 135), Zoology – (Question Nos – 136 to 180). All the
questions are compulsory.
4. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
6. Completely darken/shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against the question number on
the OMR answer sheet.
7. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for
the same.
8. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
9. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is.
10. After separating the top sheet(office copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate’s copy) to
you.
SYLLABUS
Physics : Complete syllabus Botany : Complete syllabus
Chemistry : Complete syllabus Zoology : Complete syllabus
Name of the Student: ______________________________________ Roll No:_____________________________
, PHYSICS
1. Match column I with column II. Consider a case of 4. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment
AC circuit. M 0.32 J / T is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 0.15 T . If the bar is free to rotate in the
plane of field, the potential energy of magnet in
case of unstable equilibrium is
(1) 48 J (2) 4.8 mJ (3) 48 mJ (4) 4.8 J
5. The diagram below shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown
represents the emission of a photon with the most
energy?
choose the correct option
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (1) III (2) IV (3) I (4) II
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
6. A source X of unknown frequency produces
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
8 beats/s with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats/s
(4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
with a source of 270 Hz . The frequency of the
2. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 1000 K at source is (in Hz )
constant pressure of 1 atm . The rate of heating is (1) 242 (2) 258 (3) 282 (4) 262
constant. Which of the following graphs represents
7. A body accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity
the variation of temperature with time?
of 1 ms 1 in 15 seconds. The kinetic energy of the
2
body will be J when ‘t’ is equal to [Take mass
(1) (2) 9
of body as 1kg ]
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s (3) 10 s (4) 12 s
8. The number of images observable between two
(3) (4) parallel plane mirrors is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 11 (4) infinite
3. Read the Statement I and Statement II carefully 9. The gravitational potential energy associated with
to mark the correct options given below: two particles separated by a distance r , when
r , is given by
Statement I: In case of projectile motion,
acceleration, horizontal component of velocity, and Gm1m2 Gm1m2
(1) (2)
mechanical energy remain unchanged but speed, r r
vertical component of velocity, momentum, K.E., (3) zero (4) infinity
and P.E. change. 10. Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of
Statement II: In projectile motion, in the presence different materials are connected together end to
of air resistance, the range and the maximum height end (i.e. in series). If the densities of charge carriers
attained reduce but time of flight increases.
in the two wires are in the ratio 1: 4 , the drift
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true, velocity of electrons in the two wires will be in the
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. ratio
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (3) 4 :1 (4) 1: 4
1 Space for Rough work
,11. Find the current i in the circuit given below Assume 17. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an
that the diodes are ideal. ideal gas is () R. The ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume is
(1) 1.58 (2) 1.82 (3) 1.28 (4) 1.44
18. In the nuclear reaction 92 U 238 z Th A 2 He4 , the
values of A and Z are
(1) A 234, Z 94 (2) A 234, Z 90
(1) 0.01A (2) 0.05A (3) 0.02A (4) 0.04A (3) A 238, Z 94 (4) A 238, Z 90
12. Rectilinear motion of a particle is defined by the
equation v3 x 2 (where v is the velocity). The 19. (i)
acceleration of the particle when x 8 m is
(ii)
2 2 3 2
(1) ms (2) ms
3 4 (iii)
4 2
(3) ms (4) Data is insufficient (iv)
3
13. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron (v)
emitter, the stopping potential is found to be 9 volts.
In all the given cases, blocks are in contact with
If e / m for the electron is 1.8 1011 Ckg 1 , the each other.The forces applied are as shown. All
maximum velocity of the ejected electrons is the surfaces are smooth. Then in which of the
following cases normal reaction between the two
(1) 6 105 ms 1 (2) 8 105 ms 1
blocks is zero?
(3) 1.8 106 ms 1 (4) 1.8 105 ms 1 (1) (i), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii)
14. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic (3) (iii) (4) (v)
field in a circular path. Radius of circular path 20. Mark the statements which can be concluded from
is r .When energy of the particle is doubled, the
new radius will be dV
the expression E
dr
(1) r 2 (2) 2r (3) 3r (4) r 3
(A) Electric field points in the direction of
15. The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at decreasing potential.
600 rad / s . For this power of 1.2 kW is used. The (B) Electric field points in the direction
effective torque on stone (in N m) will be of increasing potential.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (C) Potential decreases in the direction of field.
16. Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark (D) Potential increases in the direction of field.
the correct options given below: The correct statements are,
Assertion: An aircraft flies along the meridian, the (1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (A) and (D)
potential at the ends of its wings will be same.
Reason: Changing magnetic flux induces emf. (3) Only (B) and (D) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 21. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index
reason is the correct explanation of the is placed on ink mark on a piece of paper..
assertion. For a person looking vertically down word, at the
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason mark at a distance 5.0cm above it, the distance of
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. the mark will appear to be
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. (1) 3.0 cm (2) 4.0 cm
(3) 4.5 cm (4) 5.0 cm
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Space for Rough work 2
, 22. A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1cm 2 in its bottom. 28. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
If the water is allowed to flow into the tank from a
(1) zero
tube above it at the rate of 70 cm3 / sec , then the
maximum height up to which water can rise in the (2) infinite
tank is (3) same as on the surface of earth
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 0.25 cm
(4) None of these
23. The relative permeability of a material is 23.7. Its
29. In meter bridge, the observations are taken by
magnetic susceptibility is
interchanging the resistance box and the unknown
(1) zero (2) 2.37 (3) 22.7 (4) 0.237 resistance so that the
24. In an unusual vernier, 10 vernier scale divisions, (1) current flows in the opposite direction in the
coincide with 8 main scale divisions. Then the least unknown resistance.
count of the vernier is
(2) error of temperature effect can be removed
1
(1) mm (2) 0.1 mm (3) error due to different cross-sectional areas can
8 be removed
(3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.8 mm (4) error due to resistance of copper strips can be
25. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the force ( F ) removed
on the electron depends on the principal quantum 30. What is the output of the combination of the gates
number as shown in the figure below?
1 1
(1) F (2) F
n3 n4
(3) F 1 (4) F does not depend on n
n5 (1) A B A B (2) A B A B
26. A gas is compressed adiabatically. Which one of
the following statement is NOT true. (3) A A B (4) A B A B
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system
31. An object is moving in a straight line as shown in
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
the graph. Pick the correct option for the part shown
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to in the graph.
the work done on the gas.
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
27. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
plates with radius R = 20 cm separated by (1) Acceleration is constant.
d = 0.15 mm. The capacitor is being charged at a
uniform rate by applying a changing potential (2) Acceleration is changing its sign with time.
difference between the two plates. Assume that the (3) Speed is constant.
field is due to displacement current only and that
the rate at which the electric field between the (4) Acceleration is increasing with x .
plates changes is 5 1013V / (m s) . The 32. In YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on
displacement current in the capacitor is the screen if wavelength of light used is 200 nm
and d 700 nm ?
(1) 13.9 A (2) 55.6 A
(3) 0.556 A (4) 5.56 A (1) 12 (2) 7 (3) 18 (4) None of these
3 Space for Rough work
MOCK TEST - 1
www.cherrytop.in
Important instructions to candidate
1.In case of usage of signs and symbols in the questions, the regular textbook connotation should be considered unless
stated otherwise.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
3. 45 questions in each subject. (a) Questions in each subject, Physics - (Question Nos – 1 to 45), Chemistry – (Ques-
tion Nos – 46 to 90), Biology: Botany – (Question Nos – 91 to 135), Zoology – (Question Nos – 136 to 180). All the
questions are compulsory.
4. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
6. Completely darken/shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against the question number on
the OMR answer sheet.
7. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for
the same.
8. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
9. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is.
10. After separating the top sheet(office copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate’s copy) to
you.
SYLLABUS
Physics : Complete syllabus Botany : Complete syllabus
Chemistry : Complete syllabus Zoology : Complete syllabus
Name of the Student: ______________________________________ Roll No:_____________________________
, PHYSICS
1. Match column I with column II. Consider a case of 4. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment
AC circuit. M 0.32 J / T is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 0.15 T . If the bar is free to rotate in the
plane of field, the potential energy of magnet in
case of unstable equilibrium is
(1) 48 J (2) 4.8 mJ (3) 48 mJ (4) 4.8 J
5. The diagram below shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown
represents the emission of a photon with the most
energy?
choose the correct option
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (1) III (2) IV (3) I (4) II
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
6. A source X of unknown frequency produces
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
8 beats/s with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats/s
(4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
with a source of 270 Hz . The frequency of the
2. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 1000 K at source is (in Hz )
constant pressure of 1 atm . The rate of heating is (1) 242 (2) 258 (3) 282 (4) 262
constant. Which of the following graphs represents
7. A body accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity
the variation of temperature with time?
of 1 ms 1 in 15 seconds. The kinetic energy of the
2
body will be J when ‘t’ is equal to [Take mass
(1) (2) 9
of body as 1kg ]
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s (3) 10 s (4) 12 s
8. The number of images observable between two
(3) (4) parallel plane mirrors is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 11 (4) infinite
3. Read the Statement I and Statement II carefully 9. The gravitational potential energy associated with
to mark the correct options given below: two particles separated by a distance r , when
r , is given by
Statement I: In case of projectile motion,
acceleration, horizontal component of velocity, and Gm1m2 Gm1m2
(1) (2)
mechanical energy remain unchanged but speed, r r
vertical component of velocity, momentum, K.E., (3) zero (4) infinity
and P.E. change. 10. Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of
Statement II: In projectile motion, in the presence different materials are connected together end to
of air resistance, the range and the maximum height end (i.e. in series). If the densities of charge carriers
attained reduce but time of flight increases.
in the two wires are in the ratio 1: 4 , the drift
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true, velocity of electrons in the two wires will be in the
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. ratio
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (3) 4 :1 (4) 1: 4
1 Space for Rough work
,11. Find the current i in the circuit given below Assume 17. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an
that the diodes are ideal. ideal gas is () R. The ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume is
(1) 1.58 (2) 1.82 (3) 1.28 (4) 1.44
18. In the nuclear reaction 92 U 238 z Th A 2 He4 , the
values of A and Z are
(1) A 234, Z 94 (2) A 234, Z 90
(1) 0.01A (2) 0.05A (3) 0.02A (4) 0.04A (3) A 238, Z 94 (4) A 238, Z 90
12. Rectilinear motion of a particle is defined by the
equation v3 x 2 (where v is the velocity). The 19. (i)
acceleration of the particle when x 8 m is
(ii)
2 2 3 2
(1) ms (2) ms
3 4 (iii)
4 2
(3) ms (4) Data is insufficient (iv)
3
13. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron (v)
emitter, the stopping potential is found to be 9 volts.
In all the given cases, blocks are in contact with
If e / m for the electron is 1.8 1011 Ckg 1 , the each other.The forces applied are as shown. All
maximum velocity of the ejected electrons is the surfaces are smooth. Then in which of the
following cases normal reaction between the two
(1) 6 105 ms 1 (2) 8 105 ms 1
blocks is zero?
(3) 1.8 106 ms 1 (4) 1.8 105 ms 1 (1) (i), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii)
14. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic (3) (iii) (4) (v)
field in a circular path. Radius of circular path 20. Mark the statements which can be concluded from
is r .When energy of the particle is doubled, the
new radius will be dV
the expression E
dr
(1) r 2 (2) 2r (3) 3r (4) r 3
(A) Electric field points in the direction of
15. The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at decreasing potential.
600 rad / s . For this power of 1.2 kW is used. The (B) Electric field points in the direction
effective torque on stone (in N m) will be of increasing potential.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (C) Potential decreases in the direction of field.
16. Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark (D) Potential increases in the direction of field.
the correct options given below: The correct statements are,
Assertion: An aircraft flies along the meridian, the (1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (A) and (D)
potential at the ends of its wings will be same.
Reason: Changing magnetic flux induces emf. (3) Only (B) and (D) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 21. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index
reason is the correct explanation of the is placed on ink mark on a piece of paper..
assertion. For a person looking vertically down word, at the
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason mark at a distance 5.0cm above it, the distance of
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. the mark will appear to be
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. (1) 3.0 cm (2) 4.0 cm
(3) 4.5 cm (4) 5.0 cm
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Space for Rough work 2
, 22. A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1cm 2 in its bottom. 28. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
If the water is allowed to flow into the tank from a
(1) zero
tube above it at the rate of 70 cm3 / sec , then the
maximum height up to which water can rise in the (2) infinite
tank is (3) same as on the surface of earth
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 0.25 cm
(4) None of these
23. The relative permeability of a material is 23.7. Its
29. In meter bridge, the observations are taken by
magnetic susceptibility is
interchanging the resistance box and the unknown
(1) zero (2) 2.37 (3) 22.7 (4) 0.237 resistance so that the
24. In an unusual vernier, 10 vernier scale divisions, (1) current flows in the opposite direction in the
coincide with 8 main scale divisions. Then the least unknown resistance.
count of the vernier is
(2) error of temperature effect can be removed
1
(1) mm (2) 0.1 mm (3) error due to different cross-sectional areas can
8 be removed
(3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.8 mm (4) error due to resistance of copper strips can be
25. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the force ( F ) removed
on the electron depends on the principal quantum 30. What is the output of the combination of the gates
number as shown in the figure below?
1 1
(1) F (2) F
n3 n4
(3) F 1 (4) F does not depend on n
n5 (1) A B A B (2) A B A B
26. A gas is compressed adiabatically. Which one of
the following statement is NOT true. (3) A A B (4) A B A B
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system
31. An object is moving in a straight line as shown in
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
the graph. Pick the correct option for the part shown
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to in the graph.
the work done on the gas.
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
27. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
plates with radius R = 20 cm separated by (1) Acceleration is constant.
d = 0.15 mm. The capacitor is being charged at a
uniform rate by applying a changing potential (2) Acceleration is changing its sign with time.
difference between the two plates. Assume that the (3) Speed is constant.
field is due to displacement current only and that
the rate at which the electric field between the (4) Acceleration is increasing with x .
plates changes is 5 1013V / (m s) . The 32. In YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on
displacement current in the capacitor is the screen if wavelength of light used is 200 nm
and d 700 nm ?
(1) 13.9 A (2) 55.6 A
(3) 0.556 A (4) 5.56 A (1) 12 (2) 7 (3) 18 (4) None of these
3 Space for Rough work
