1|Page
CEA TEST EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
2025/ 2026 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE 500
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /A+
STUDY MATERIAL // LATEST EXAM!!!!
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,2|Page
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - Answer-Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark
of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in
patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him? - Answer-Calcium
channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered
standard of care for serial surveillance? - Answer-CT
angiography of the chest
,3|Page
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of
care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta
(it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able
to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - Answer-phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - Answer-Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both
a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
, 4|Page
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however,
a patient has not described that, rather is only describing
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of
these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who
will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's
care? - Answer-Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
CEA TEST EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
2025/ 2026 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE 500
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /A+
STUDY MATERIAL // LATEST EXAM!!!!
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,2|Page
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - Answer-Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark
of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in
patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him? - Answer-Calcium
channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered
standard of care for serial surveillance? - Answer-CT
angiography of the chest
,3|Page
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of
care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta
(it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able
to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - Answer-phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - Answer-Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both
a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
, 4|Page
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however,
a patient has not described that, rather is only describing
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of
these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who
will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's
care? - Answer-Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
