Exam | Nursing Study Guide and
Practice Material
This exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions designed to prepare candidates for the
Jersey College Medical-Surgical Nursing 1 RN Final Exam for the 2025/2026 cycle. The content
aligns with medical-surgical nursing principles, focusing on pathophysiology, patient care,
pharmacology, safety, and clinical reasoning, as per NCLEX-RN standards and Jersey College’s
MedSurg 1 curriculum (e.g., Lewis’s Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th Edition). Each question
includes four answer options, the correct answer, and a detailed rationale citing relevant nursing
principles or guidelines.
Question 1
What is the primary cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) Genetic mutation
B) Long-term exposure to lung irritants
C) Bacterial infection
D) Autoimmune response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : COPD is primarily caused by long-term exposure to lung irritants, such as cigarette
smoke or air pollutants, leading to airway inflammation and obstruction (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 28).
Genetic mutations (A) are rare (e.g., alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency), infections (C) are secondary,
and autoimmune (D) is unrelated.
Question 2
A patient with heart failure reports dyspnea and orthopnea. What is the best nursing intervention?
A) Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B) Place the patient in a supine position
C) Increase fluid intake
D) Restrict physical activity completely
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale : Oxygen administration relieves dyspnea in heart failure by improving oxygenation
(Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 34). Supine position (B) worsens orthopnea, increased fluids (C)
exacerbate fluid overload, and complete restriction (D) is unnecessary.
Question 3
Which medication is commonly used to treat acute angina pectoris?
A) Metoprolol
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Furosemide
D) Albuterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve acute angina by increasing coronary
blood flow (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 33). Metoprolol (A) is for long-term management, furosemide (C)
treats fluid overload, and albuterol (D) is for bronchospasm.
Question 4
A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with Kussmaul respirations. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
C) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS)
D) Lactic acidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Kussmaul respirations indicate metabolic acidosis, common in DKA due to ketone
accumulation in type 1 diabetes (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 49). Hypoglycemia (A) causes neurological
symptoms, HHS (C) lacks rapid respirations, and lactic acidosis (D) is less common.
Question 5
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
A) Administer pain medication
B) Initiate oxygen therapy
C) Encourage ambulation
D) Apply compression stockings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Oxygen therapy is the priority to address hypoxia in pulmonary embolism (Lewis,
11th Ed., Ch. 28). Pain medication (A) is secondary, ambulation (C) risks dislodging clots, and
stockings (D) are preventive.
,Question 6
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a patient taking loop diuretics?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Loop diuretics like furosemide increase potassium excretion, causing hypokalemia
(Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 16). Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and hypocalcemia (D) are less
common.
Question 7
A patient with a peptic ulcer reports epigastric pain. Which medication is most appropriate?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Omeprazole
C) Acetaminophen
D) Aspirin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, reduces acid production to promote ulcer
healing (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 41). Ibuprofen (A) and aspirin (D) worsen ulcers, and
acetaminophen (C) is for pain, not ulcers.
Question 8
What is the hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Bradykinesia
B) Seizures
C) Memory loss
D) Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale : Bradykinesia (slowed movement) is a hallmark of Parkinson’s due to dopamine
deficiency (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 23). Seizures (B), memory loss (C), and neuropathy (D) are not
primary symptoms.
Question 9
A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the primary cause?
, A) Portal hypertension
B) Renal failure
C) Heart failure
D) Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale : Portal hypertension in cirrhosis increases pressure in the portal vein, leading to
ascites (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 39). Renal (B), heart failure (C), and hypothyroidism (D) are
secondary or unrelated.
Question 10
Which assessment finding indicates a fluid volume deficit?
A) Jugular vein distension
B) Dry mucous membranes
C) Edema in extremities
D) Crackles in lungs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale : Dry mucous membranes indicate dehydration and fluid volume deficit (Lewis, 11th
Ed., Ch. 16). Jugular distension (A), edema (C), and crackles (D) suggest fluid overload.
Question 11
What is the priority action for a patient with a new-onset seizure?
A) Administer lorazepam IV
B) Restrain the patient
C) Insert an oral airway
D) Encourage deep breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale : Lorazepam is the first-line treatment to stop a seizure (Lewis, 11th Ed., Ch. 22).
Restraining (B) risks injury, oral airway (C) is unsafe during a seizure, and breathing (D) is
irrelevant.
Question 12
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What should the nurse monitor?
A) Blood glucose
B) Serum potassium
C) Respiratory rate
D) Urine output