Mock Test (2025)
Set - 09
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 21/04/2025 M. MARKS : 720
Topics Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : (Botany): Full Syllabus
(Zoology): Full Syllabus
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45
questions in each subject
3. The test booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________
Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________
OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________
, NEET
Set-09
Mock Test (2025)
Q1 According to Bohr's postulates, the angular In the light of the above statements, choose the
momentum of an electron in the nth orbit of correct answer from the options given below:
hydrogen atom is: (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) nh
2π
(2) nh
π
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3)
nh
(4)
2
n h (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4π 2π
explanation of A.
Q2 In a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T, a magnetic (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
needle performs 40 oscillations in 10 sec as explanation of A.
shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is
8.0 × 10–6 kgm2. If magnetic moment of the Q6 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of
needle is y × 10–6Am2, then the value of y is: work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding
stopping potential is:
(1) 2.3 V (2) 1.8 V
(3) 1.3 V (4) 0.5 V
Q7 Consider the following statements about electric
(1) 10.24 π2 (2) 102.40 π2 dipole and select the correct ones
(3) 1024 π2 (4) 10240 π2 →
S1 : Electric dipole moment vector p is directed
Q3 A diode has a voltage increase of 0.2 V, and the from negative charge to positive charge.
corresponding current increases from 2 mA to 10 S2 : The electric field of a dipole at a point with
→ →
mA. What is its dynamic resistance? position vector r depends on ∣∣ r ∣∣ as well as the
(1) 25 Ω (2) 50 Ω angle between
→
r and
→
p .
(3) 100 Ω (4) 200 Ω S3 : The electric dipole potential falls off as 1
2
r
and not as .
1
Q4 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given r
by [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be: S4 : In a uniform electric field, the electric dipole
(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 experiences no net forces but a torque
→
(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 → →
τ = p × E -.
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 (1) S2, S3 and S4
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2 (2) S3 and S4 only
(3) S2 and S3 only
Q5 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(4) all four statements are true
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R: Q8 Two solid bars having Young's modulus Y1 and Y2
Assertion (A): Gauss's law for magnetism states in the ratio of Y1/Y2 = 4. If the bars are made up
that the net magnetic flux through any closed of materials with same density, then the ratio of
surface is zero. the speeds of longitudinal waves in the solid bars
Reason (R): This is because isolated magnetic i.e. v1/v2 is:
monopoles exist in nature. (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4
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Q14 A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a real
Q9 Work done in given cyclic process is:
image of an object placed at 30 cm from the
lens. The image distance is:
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 15 cm
Q15 A body starts from rest and moves with uniform
acceleration a. The ratio of the distances covered
(1) P0V0 (2) 3P0V0 in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd seconds is:
(3) 6P0V0 (4) 5P0V0 (1) 1:3:5 (2) 1:4:9
(3) 1:2:3 (4) 1:5:9
Q10 A particle moves in a straight line with
acceleration given by a = –kv where k is a Q16 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
positive constant. The velocity at time t is (I) The total mechanical energy of the satellite is
proportional to: negative.
(1) ekt (2) e–kt (II) The kinetic energy of the satellite is half of
(3) t2 (4) 1/t magnitude of its total energy.
(III) The potential energy of the satellite is
Q11 A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic
negative and twice the magnitude of kinetic
field. Which statement (s) are correct?
energy.
(I) The force on the particle is always
(IV) The total energy increases if the satellite
perpendicular to its velocity.
moves to a higher orbit.
(II) The kinetic energy of the particle remains
(1) I, III, and IV
unchanged.
(2) I and III only
(III) The magnetic force does work on the
(3) II and IV only
particle.
(4) I, II, and III
(IV) The particle follows a helical path if it has
velocity components parallel and perpendicular Q17 A block of mass 5 kg is suspended using a light
to the field. string. What will be the tension in the string when
(1) I, II and IV (2) I and III only the block is accelerating upward at 2 m/s2?
(3) II and IV (4) I, III and IV (1) 40 N (2) 50 N
(3) 60 N (4) 70 N
Q12 A 2 kg mass moving at 8 m/s collides elastically
with a 4 kg mass at rest. The velocity of the 2 kg Q18 The percentage error in the measurement of
mass after collision is: mass and velocity are 2% and 3%, respectively.
(1) –8 m/s The maximum possible error in kinetic energy is:
(2) 4 m/s (1) 5% (2) 6%
(3) – 2.6 m/s (3) 8% (4) 10%
(4) 2 m/s
Q19 Water flows through a pipe of diameter 10 cm
Q13 Two wires of the same material have lengths in with speed 4 m/s. What is the speed of water in a
the ratio 2:1 and diameters in the ratio 1:2. The pipe of diameter 5 cm?
ratio of breaking stresses is: (1) 16 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
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Q24 Identify the correct truth table for the logic gate
Q20 An electron is accelerated through a potential shown in figure.
difference of 180 V. The de Broglie wavelength
associated with it is, approximately:
(1) 0.1 nm (2) 0.29 nm (1)
(3) 0.09 nm (4) 0.05 nm
Q21 Two point charges +Q and –Q are placed at a
distance 2a apart. The potential at the midpoint
is: (2)
(1) Zero
(2) Q
4πε0 a
(3) Q
2πε0 a
(4) Infinite (3)
Q22 A parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C is
connected to a battery.
What happens to its energy if the plates are
moved apart?
(4)
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Becomes zero
Q23 Given below are two statements: Q25 If a rough uniform disc rotates slowly in x-y plane
Statement I: During polarization by reflection, about an axis passing through centre. Tthe
the reflected ray has electric field component angular velocity of a sand particle placed on the
oscillating perpendicular to the plane of periphery of the disc is most likely to be along:
incidence.
Statement II: In an EM-wave, the electric field,
magnetic field and wave propagation direction
all are coplanar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(1) x–axis
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) z–axis
correct.
(3) y–axis
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) angular velocity is a scalar quantity.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. Q26 When a battery of potential difference V is
connected between ends A and B, the charge
stored in capacitor having capacitance is:
C
2
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Set - 09
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 21/04/2025 M. MARKS : 720
Topics Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : (Botany): Full Syllabus
(Zoology): Full Syllabus
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45
questions in each subject
3. The test booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________
Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________
OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________
, NEET
Set-09
Mock Test (2025)
Q1 According to Bohr's postulates, the angular In the light of the above statements, choose the
momentum of an electron in the nth orbit of correct answer from the options given below:
hydrogen atom is: (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) nh
2π
(2) nh
π
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3)
nh
(4)
2
n h (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4π 2π
explanation of A.
Q2 In a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T, a magnetic (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
needle performs 40 oscillations in 10 sec as explanation of A.
shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is
8.0 × 10–6 kgm2. If magnetic moment of the Q6 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of
needle is y × 10–6Am2, then the value of y is: work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding
stopping potential is:
(1) 2.3 V (2) 1.8 V
(3) 1.3 V (4) 0.5 V
Q7 Consider the following statements about electric
(1) 10.24 π2 (2) 102.40 π2 dipole and select the correct ones
(3) 1024 π2 (4) 10240 π2 →
S1 : Electric dipole moment vector p is directed
Q3 A diode has a voltage increase of 0.2 V, and the from negative charge to positive charge.
corresponding current increases from 2 mA to 10 S2 : The electric field of a dipole at a point with
→ →
mA. What is its dynamic resistance? position vector r depends on ∣∣ r ∣∣ as well as the
(1) 25 Ω (2) 50 Ω angle between
→
r and
→
p .
(3) 100 Ω (4) 200 Ω S3 : The electric dipole potential falls off as 1
2
r
and not as .
1
Q4 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given r
by [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be: S4 : In a uniform electric field, the electric dipole
(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 experiences no net forces but a torque
→
(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 → →
τ = p × E -.
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 (1) S2, S3 and S4
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2 (2) S3 and S4 only
(3) S2 and S3 only
Q5 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(4) all four statements are true
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R: Q8 Two solid bars having Young's modulus Y1 and Y2
Assertion (A): Gauss's law for magnetism states in the ratio of Y1/Y2 = 4. If the bars are made up
that the net magnetic flux through any closed of materials with same density, then the ratio of
surface is zero. the speeds of longitudinal waves in the solid bars
Reason (R): This is because isolated magnetic i.e. v1/v2 is:
monopoles exist in nature. (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4
Android App | iOS App | PW Website
, NEET
Q14 A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a real
Q9 Work done in given cyclic process is:
image of an object placed at 30 cm from the
lens. The image distance is:
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 15 cm
Q15 A body starts from rest and moves with uniform
acceleration a. The ratio of the distances covered
(1) P0V0 (2) 3P0V0 in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd seconds is:
(3) 6P0V0 (4) 5P0V0 (1) 1:3:5 (2) 1:4:9
(3) 1:2:3 (4) 1:5:9
Q10 A particle moves in a straight line with
acceleration given by a = –kv where k is a Q16 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
positive constant. The velocity at time t is (I) The total mechanical energy of the satellite is
proportional to: negative.
(1) ekt (2) e–kt (II) The kinetic energy of the satellite is half of
(3) t2 (4) 1/t magnitude of its total energy.
(III) The potential energy of the satellite is
Q11 A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic
negative and twice the magnitude of kinetic
field. Which statement (s) are correct?
energy.
(I) The force on the particle is always
(IV) The total energy increases if the satellite
perpendicular to its velocity.
moves to a higher orbit.
(II) The kinetic energy of the particle remains
(1) I, III, and IV
unchanged.
(2) I and III only
(III) The magnetic force does work on the
(3) II and IV only
particle.
(4) I, II, and III
(IV) The particle follows a helical path if it has
velocity components parallel and perpendicular Q17 A block of mass 5 kg is suspended using a light
to the field. string. What will be the tension in the string when
(1) I, II and IV (2) I and III only the block is accelerating upward at 2 m/s2?
(3) II and IV (4) I, III and IV (1) 40 N (2) 50 N
(3) 60 N (4) 70 N
Q12 A 2 kg mass moving at 8 m/s collides elastically
with a 4 kg mass at rest. The velocity of the 2 kg Q18 The percentage error in the measurement of
mass after collision is: mass and velocity are 2% and 3%, respectively.
(1) –8 m/s The maximum possible error in kinetic energy is:
(2) 4 m/s (1) 5% (2) 6%
(3) – 2.6 m/s (3) 8% (4) 10%
(4) 2 m/s
Q19 Water flows through a pipe of diameter 10 cm
Q13 Two wires of the same material have lengths in with speed 4 m/s. What is the speed of water in a
the ratio 2:1 and diameters in the ratio 1:2. The pipe of diameter 5 cm?
ratio of breaking stresses is: (1) 16 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
Android App | iOS App | PW Website
, NEET
Q24 Identify the correct truth table for the logic gate
Q20 An electron is accelerated through a potential shown in figure.
difference of 180 V. The de Broglie wavelength
associated with it is, approximately:
(1) 0.1 nm (2) 0.29 nm (1)
(3) 0.09 nm (4) 0.05 nm
Q21 Two point charges +Q and –Q are placed at a
distance 2a apart. The potential at the midpoint
is: (2)
(1) Zero
(2) Q
4πε0 a
(3) Q
2πε0 a
(4) Infinite (3)
Q22 A parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C is
connected to a battery.
What happens to its energy if the plates are
moved apart?
(4)
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Becomes zero
Q23 Given below are two statements: Q25 If a rough uniform disc rotates slowly in x-y plane
Statement I: During polarization by reflection, about an axis passing through centre. Tthe
the reflected ray has electric field component angular velocity of a sand particle placed on the
oscillating perpendicular to the plane of periphery of the disc is most likely to be along:
incidence.
Statement II: In an EM-wave, the electric field,
magnetic field and wave propagation direction
all are coplanar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(1) x–axis
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) z–axis
correct.
(3) y–axis
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) angular velocity is a scalar quantity.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. Q26 When a battery of potential difference V is
connected between ends A and B, the charge
stored in capacitor having capacitance is:
C
2
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