WGU C702 Final Exam (Forensic Psychology). 200 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
Which of the following describes the legal standard for "competency to stand trial"?
A) The defendant understood the nature of their actions at the time of the crime.
B) The defendant is able to assist their attorney in their defense and understand the nature of
the legal proceedings.
C) The defendant is free from any mental illness.
D) The defendant can differentiate between right and wrong.
E) The defendant poses no future risk to society.
Correct Answer: B) The defendant is able to assist their attorney in their defense
and understand the nature of the legal proceedings.
Rationale: Competency to stand trial refers to a defendant's present mental ability to
understand the charges and legal process, and to assist their attorney.
Question 2
The "M'Naghten Rule" is a legal standard primarily used to determine:
A) Competency to stand trial.
B) Insanity at the time of the crime.
C) Risk of future dangerousness.
D) Credibility of witnesses.
E) Eligibility for parole.
Correct Answer: B) Insanity at the time of the crime.
Rationale: The M'Naghten Rule is a common legal test for insanity, focusing on whether the
defendant knew the nature and quality of their act or that it was wrong due to a mental disease
or defect.
Question 3
Which of the following is a primary duty of a forensic psychologist in a correctional setting?
A) Providing legal advice to inmates.
B) Managing the prison's budget.
C) Conducting psychological assessments, therapy, and risk evaluations for inmates.
D) Overseeing prison security operations.
E) Representing inmates in court.
Correct Answer: C) Conducting psychological assessments, therapy, and risk
evaluations for inmates.
,Rationale: Forensic psychologists in correctional settings provide a range of services, including
mental health assessment and treatment, crisis intervention, and conducting risk assessments
for release decisions.
Question 4
The term "actus reus" refers to which component of a criminal offense?
A) The guilty mind or intent.
B) The criminal act itself.
C) The motive for the crime.
D) The victim's contribution.
E) The punishment prescribed by law.
Correct Answer: B) The criminal act itself.
Rationale: "Actus reus" is the Latin term for the "guilty act," referring to the physical element
of a crime.
Question 5
Which psychological phenomenon describes a witness's memory being altered by misleading
information or suggestions encountered after an event?
A) Flashbulb memory.
B) Source monitoring error.
C) Weapon focus effect.
D) Misinformation effect.
E) Repressed memory.
Correct Answer: D) Misinformation effect.
Rationale: The misinformation effect occurs when post-event information influences and
distorts a person's memory of an event.
Question 6
A forensic psychologist is asked to conduct a "parental fitness evaluation." The primary purpose
of this evaluation is to:
A) Determine which parent is wealthier.
B) Assess the psychological capacity of parents to meet their children's needs.
C) Diagnose any mental illness in the parents.
D) Recommend a specific visitation schedule.
E) Advise on child support payments.
Correct Answer: B) Assess the psychological capacity of parents to meet their
children's needs.
,Rationale: Parental fitness evaluations (or child custody evaluations) assess the psychological
functioning and capacity of parents to provide adequate care and promote the best interests of
their children.
Question 7
The "Durham Rule" for insanity differs from M'Naghten by focusing on whether:
A) The defendant could distinguish right from wrong.
B) The defendant had a mental disease or defect.
C) The criminal act was the product of a mental disease or defect.
D) The defendant had an irresistible impulse.
E) The defendant was competent at trial.
Correct Answer: C) The criminal act was the product of a mental disease or defect.
Rationale: The Durham Rule (Product Test) stated that a defendant is not criminally
responsible if their unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect, offering a broader
interpretation than M'Naghten.
Question 8
Which of the following is a key characteristic of psychopathy, as measured by the PCL-R
(Psychopathy Checklist-Revised)?
A) High empathy and remorse.
B) Shallow affect and lack of remorse.
C) Low intelligence.
D) Strong attachment to others.
E) Avoidance of risk-taking behaviors.
Correct Answer: B) Shallow affect and lack of remorse.
Rationale: Psychopathy is characterized by a constellation of interpersonal, affective, and
behavioral traits, including a callous lack of empathy and remorse, shallow affect, and
manipulative behavior.
Question 9
In the context of risk assessment, "recidivism" refers to:
A) The likelihood of an individual committing a crime for the first time.
B) The rate at which individuals successfully complete parole.
C) The tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend.
D) The effectiveness of correctional treatment programs.
E) The number of victims in a particular crime.
Correct Answer: C) The tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend.
, Rationale: Recidivism is the tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend, often measured by
rearrest, reconviction, or re-incarceration rates.
Question 10
Which ethical principle is violated when a forensic psychologist provides therapy to a client
who they are also evaluating for a legal case?
A) Beneficence.
B) Non-maleficence.
C) Dual relationships.
D) Confidentiality.
E) Informed consent.
Correct Answer: C) Dual relationships.
Rationale: Engaging in dual relationships (e.g., evaluator and therapist) with a forensic client is
an ethical violation due to the potential for conflicts of interest, impaired objectivity, and harm
to the client.
Question 11
The "juvenile waiver" or "transfer" to adult court refers to:
A) A juvenile's right to refuse legal counsel.
B) The process by which a juvenile offender is moved from the juvenile justice system to the
adult criminal justice system.
C) A juvenile's right to waive their Miranda rights.
D) The ability of a juvenile to choose their sentencing.
E) The process of juveniles waiving their right to appeal.
Correct Answer: B) The process by which a juvenile offender is moved from the
juvenile justice system to the adult criminal justice system.
Rationale: Juvenile waiver, or transfer, allows for certain serious juvenile offenders to be tried
and sentenced as adults.
Question 12
Which of the following is a key component of an effective sexual offender treatment program?
A) Solely focusing on punishment.
B) Emphasizing victim blaming.
C) Addressing cognitive distortions and developing relapse prevention plans.
D) Group therapy without individual counseling.
E) Relying entirely on pharmacological interventions.
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
Which of the following describes the legal standard for "competency to stand trial"?
A) The defendant understood the nature of their actions at the time of the crime.
B) The defendant is able to assist their attorney in their defense and understand the nature of
the legal proceedings.
C) The defendant is free from any mental illness.
D) The defendant can differentiate between right and wrong.
E) The defendant poses no future risk to society.
Correct Answer: B) The defendant is able to assist their attorney in their defense
and understand the nature of the legal proceedings.
Rationale: Competency to stand trial refers to a defendant's present mental ability to
understand the charges and legal process, and to assist their attorney.
Question 2
The "M'Naghten Rule" is a legal standard primarily used to determine:
A) Competency to stand trial.
B) Insanity at the time of the crime.
C) Risk of future dangerousness.
D) Credibility of witnesses.
E) Eligibility for parole.
Correct Answer: B) Insanity at the time of the crime.
Rationale: The M'Naghten Rule is a common legal test for insanity, focusing on whether the
defendant knew the nature and quality of their act or that it was wrong due to a mental disease
or defect.
Question 3
Which of the following is a primary duty of a forensic psychologist in a correctional setting?
A) Providing legal advice to inmates.
B) Managing the prison's budget.
C) Conducting psychological assessments, therapy, and risk evaluations for inmates.
D) Overseeing prison security operations.
E) Representing inmates in court.
Correct Answer: C) Conducting psychological assessments, therapy, and risk
evaluations for inmates.
,Rationale: Forensic psychologists in correctional settings provide a range of services, including
mental health assessment and treatment, crisis intervention, and conducting risk assessments
for release decisions.
Question 4
The term "actus reus" refers to which component of a criminal offense?
A) The guilty mind or intent.
B) The criminal act itself.
C) The motive for the crime.
D) The victim's contribution.
E) The punishment prescribed by law.
Correct Answer: B) The criminal act itself.
Rationale: "Actus reus" is the Latin term for the "guilty act," referring to the physical element
of a crime.
Question 5
Which psychological phenomenon describes a witness's memory being altered by misleading
information or suggestions encountered after an event?
A) Flashbulb memory.
B) Source monitoring error.
C) Weapon focus effect.
D) Misinformation effect.
E) Repressed memory.
Correct Answer: D) Misinformation effect.
Rationale: The misinformation effect occurs when post-event information influences and
distorts a person's memory of an event.
Question 6
A forensic psychologist is asked to conduct a "parental fitness evaluation." The primary purpose
of this evaluation is to:
A) Determine which parent is wealthier.
B) Assess the psychological capacity of parents to meet their children's needs.
C) Diagnose any mental illness in the parents.
D) Recommend a specific visitation schedule.
E) Advise on child support payments.
Correct Answer: B) Assess the psychological capacity of parents to meet their
children's needs.
,Rationale: Parental fitness evaluations (or child custody evaluations) assess the psychological
functioning and capacity of parents to provide adequate care and promote the best interests of
their children.
Question 7
The "Durham Rule" for insanity differs from M'Naghten by focusing on whether:
A) The defendant could distinguish right from wrong.
B) The defendant had a mental disease or defect.
C) The criminal act was the product of a mental disease or defect.
D) The defendant had an irresistible impulse.
E) The defendant was competent at trial.
Correct Answer: C) The criminal act was the product of a mental disease or defect.
Rationale: The Durham Rule (Product Test) stated that a defendant is not criminally
responsible if their unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect, offering a broader
interpretation than M'Naghten.
Question 8
Which of the following is a key characteristic of psychopathy, as measured by the PCL-R
(Psychopathy Checklist-Revised)?
A) High empathy and remorse.
B) Shallow affect and lack of remorse.
C) Low intelligence.
D) Strong attachment to others.
E) Avoidance of risk-taking behaviors.
Correct Answer: B) Shallow affect and lack of remorse.
Rationale: Psychopathy is characterized by a constellation of interpersonal, affective, and
behavioral traits, including a callous lack of empathy and remorse, shallow affect, and
manipulative behavior.
Question 9
In the context of risk assessment, "recidivism" refers to:
A) The likelihood of an individual committing a crime for the first time.
B) The rate at which individuals successfully complete parole.
C) The tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend.
D) The effectiveness of correctional treatment programs.
E) The number of victims in a particular crime.
Correct Answer: C) The tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend.
, Rationale: Recidivism is the tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend, often measured by
rearrest, reconviction, or re-incarceration rates.
Question 10
Which ethical principle is violated when a forensic psychologist provides therapy to a client
who they are also evaluating for a legal case?
A) Beneficence.
B) Non-maleficence.
C) Dual relationships.
D) Confidentiality.
E) Informed consent.
Correct Answer: C) Dual relationships.
Rationale: Engaging in dual relationships (e.g., evaluator and therapist) with a forensic client is
an ethical violation due to the potential for conflicts of interest, impaired objectivity, and harm
to the client.
Question 11
The "juvenile waiver" or "transfer" to adult court refers to:
A) A juvenile's right to refuse legal counsel.
B) The process by which a juvenile offender is moved from the juvenile justice system to the
adult criminal justice system.
C) A juvenile's right to waive their Miranda rights.
D) The ability of a juvenile to choose their sentencing.
E) The process of juveniles waiving their right to appeal.
Correct Answer: B) The process by which a juvenile offender is moved from the
juvenile justice system to the adult criminal justice system.
Rationale: Juvenile waiver, or transfer, allows for certain serious juvenile offenders to be tried
and sentenced as adults.
Question 12
Which of the following is a key component of an effective sexual offender treatment program?
A) Solely focusing on punishment.
B) Emphasizing victim blaming.
C) Addressing cognitive distortions and developing relapse prevention plans.
D) Group therapy without individual counseling.
E) Relying entirely on pharmacological interventions.
