SOUTH COLLEGE
NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic
NSG5340 Midterm and Final Exam
NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required
Course Title and Number: NSG5340 Final Exams
Exam Title: Midterm, Finals, Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully and Answer All Questions
2. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
3. Please Ensure all you answer each question below and click Submit
when you have completed the Exam.
4. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit automatically
when the time expires
5. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
Good Luck……...!
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NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required Exam
Review NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic Exam
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2025- 2026
NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required Exam
NSG5340 Midterm and Finals Exam
NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic
SOUTH COLLEGE .
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
When assessing a joint- you MUST always assess the joint
above and below the affected one- as referred pain or damage
to other joints maybe occurring. You should also assess the
opposite joint for symmetry.
Parker, a 3 year old male patient, presents to your clinic today,
accompanied by his mother. She reports that she was called by
the daycare center where he fell. Which of the following is the
most appropriate tool for you to use to describe a fracture in
this patient?
a) salter-Harris Classification
b) Gleason's Score
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c) CURBS criteria
d) Obturator Symptom Index Score - =Answer>> answer:
Salter-harris classification
When assessing the pediatric population for Fractures- you
must consider the Salter Harris classification due to the
potential damage to the growth plates.
You are assessing Mr. K who is complaining of a painful swollen
ankle which has increased over the last 2 days. Upon
examination you find him to have the following VS: B/P 110/60
P-92 R-18 T-101. His right ankle is erythematous, very tender
and warm to touch. You're most appropriate first action as an
APRN would be:
a) Perform additional tests to rule out septic arthritis.
b) Order Advil 400 mg. every 6 hours, ice packs and an ace
bandage for him.
c) Have him elevate the leg and ankle and re-assess him the
next morning.
d) Order an X-Ray as there is probably a fracture. -
=Answer>> answer: Perform additional tests to rule out
septic arthritis.
With his history of worsening pain, and PE of fever, painful red
hot ankle- you must rule out septic arthritis. Too early for
treatments. Clinical picture does not indicate a Fracture.
Ms. George, a concerned mother, contacts you about her 6
month old son. She is very concerned about his "flatfeet." She
expresses concern about his ability to play sports in the future
being flatfooted. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
response?
a) Flatfeet or Pes Planus is commonly seen in infants and
toddlers. Most resolve by age 2 to 3 years.
b) Yes, I see your concern. We should splint his feet in order to
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correct the problem prior to his next growth spurt.
c) This is something you should not worry about.
d) Flatfeet or Pes Planus cannot be corrected. So your son will
be limited in future activities. - =Answer>> answer: Flatfeet
or Pes Planus is commonly seen in infants and toddlers. Most
resolve by age 2 to 3 years.
Pes Planus is commonly in young infants due to a fat pad- this
corrects itself by age 2-3. A VERY small percentage of cases
persist into adulthood. Although the response " this is
something you should not worry about" is technically correct,
always validate the parents concern.
When assessing a 64yof (year old female) you note bony
overgrowths on the dorsolateral aspect of the DIP joints. Which
of the following is the correct name for these overgrowths?
a) Boutonniere deformities
b) Herberden nodes
c) Bouchard nodes
d) Dupuytren contractures - =Answer>> answer: Herberden
nodes
Heberden nodes- DIP joints
Bouchard nodes- PIP joints
Boutonniere deformities- persistent flexion of the PIP joint and
hyperextension of the DIP joint.
See Bickley
A positive anterior drawer test indicates a tear in which
ligament?
a) Posterior Cruciate Ligament
b) Medial Collateral Ligament
c) Medial Meniscus Ligement
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NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic
NSG5340 Midterm and Final Exam
NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required
Course Title and Number: NSG5340 Final Exams
Exam Title: Midterm, Finals, Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully and Answer All Questions
2. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
3. Please Ensure all you answer each question below and click Submit
when you have completed the Exam.
4. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit automatically
when the time expires
5. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
Good Luck……...!
📝
Are you Struggling with University Exams or Job Certification
Assessments?? 📌I Got You Covered 💯.!!!
✍I Specialize in Taking the Exam On your Behalf.
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NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required Exam
Review NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic Exam
Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025- 2026
NSG 5340 Final Exam Respondus Lockdown Required Exam
NSG5340 Midterm and Finals Exam
NSG5340 Advanced Health Assessment Didatic
SOUTH COLLEGE .
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
When assessing a joint- you MUST always assess the joint
above and below the affected one- as referred pain or damage
to other joints maybe occurring. You should also assess the
opposite joint for symmetry.
Parker, a 3 year old male patient, presents to your clinic today,
accompanied by his mother. She reports that she was called by
the daycare center where he fell. Which of the following is the
most appropriate tool for you to use to describe a fracture in
this patient?
a) salter-Harris Classification
b) Gleason's Score
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c) CURBS criteria
d) Obturator Symptom Index Score - =Answer>> answer:
Salter-harris classification
When assessing the pediatric population for Fractures- you
must consider the Salter Harris classification due to the
potential damage to the growth plates.
You are assessing Mr. K who is complaining of a painful swollen
ankle which has increased over the last 2 days. Upon
examination you find him to have the following VS: B/P 110/60
P-92 R-18 T-101. His right ankle is erythematous, very tender
and warm to touch. You're most appropriate first action as an
APRN would be:
a) Perform additional tests to rule out septic arthritis.
b) Order Advil 400 mg. every 6 hours, ice packs and an ace
bandage for him.
c) Have him elevate the leg and ankle and re-assess him the
next morning.
d) Order an X-Ray as there is probably a fracture. -
=Answer>> answer: Perform additional tests to rule out
septic arthritis.
With his history of worsening pain, and PE of fever, painful red
hot ankle- you must rule out septic arthritis. Too early for
treatments. Clinical picture does not indicate a Fracture.
Ms. George, a concerned mother, contacts you about her 6
month old son. She is very concerned about his "flatfeet." She
expresses concern about his ability to play sports in the future
being flatfooted. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
response?
a) Flatfeet or Pes Planus is commonly seen in infants and
toddlers. Most resolve by age 2 to 3 years.
b) Yes, I see your concern. We should splint his feet in order to
Need Writing 📝Help? We've Got You Covered! ✍️
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, I can Help BYPASS PROCTORED EXAM 📑
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correct the problem prior to his next growth spurt.
c) This is something you should not worry about.
d) Flatfeet or Pes Planus cannot be corrected. So your son will
be limited in future activities. - =Answer>> answer: Flatfeet
or Pes Planus is commonly seen in infants and toddlers. Most
resolve by age 2 to 3 years.
Pes Planus is commonly in young infants due to a fat pad- this
corrects itself by age 2-3. A VERY small percentage of cases
persist into adulthood. Although the response " this is
something you should not worry about" is technically correct,
always validate the parents concern.
When assessing a 64yof (year old female) you note bony
overgrowths on the dorsolateral aspect of the DIP joints. Which
of the following is the correct name for these overgrowths?
a) Boutonniere deformities
b) Herberden nodes
c) Bouchard nodes
d) Dupuytren contractures - =Answer>> answer: Herberden
nodes
Heberden nodes- DIP joints
Bouchard nodes- PIP joints
Boutonniere deformities- persistent flexion of the PIP joint and
hyperextension of the DIP joint.
See Bickley
A positive anterior drawer test indicates a tear in which
ligament?
a) Posterior Cruciate Ligament
b) Medial Collateral Ligament
c) Medial Meniscus Ligement
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