1|Page
NSG 320 EXAM 2 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | ALL QUESTIONS &
CORRECT ANSWERS | UPDATED VERSION, 100% CORRECT
ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1.
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab
result should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Hemoglobin A1C
C) Serum calcium
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: A) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss.
Hypokalemia can lead to arrhythmias; monitor electrolytes regularly.
Q2.
A patient taking digoxin reports nausea, visual halos, and bradycardia. What
is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer the next scheduled dose
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
C) Encourage fluid intake
D) Monitor vital signs only
Correct Answer: B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: These are signs of digoxin toxicity. The drug should be held, and
serum digoxin and potassium levels assessed immediately.
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Q3.
Which teaching is essential for a patient prescribed ACE inhibitors?
A) Report persistent cough or swelling of lips/tongue
B) Take with a high-sodium diet
C) Avoid potassium supplements
D) Discontinue if blood pressure drops
Correct Answer: A) Report persistent cough or swelling of lips/tongue
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause cough and angioedema. Potassium
supplements should be used cautiously, and sudden discontinuation should
be provider-guided.
Q4.
A patient receiving heparin develops sudden platelet drop. Which
complication is the nurse most concerned about?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C) Hypertension
D) Stroke
Correct Answer: B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Rationale: HIT is immune-mediated, leading to thrombocytopenia and
paradoxical clot formation. Immediate discontinuation and alternative
anticoagulation are required.
Q5.
Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient on loop
diuretics?
A) Mild thirst
B) Dizziness and muscle cramps
C) Occasional dry mouth
D) Mild fatigue
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Correct Answer: B) Dizziness and muscle cramps
Rationale: These symptoms suggest electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia,
hyponatremia) and volume depletion; interventions include electrolyte
monitoring and supplementation.
Q6.
A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test must the nurse monitor to
ensure therapeutic effect?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) CBC
D) Serum potassium
Correct Answer: A) PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR
monitors anticoagulation; target INR is individualized, commonly 2–3.
Q7.
Which adverse effect is most concerning for statin therapy?
A) Muscle pain and weakness
B) Mild headache
C) Flushing
D) Dry mouth
Correct Answer: A) Muscle pain and weakness
Rationale: Statins can cause myopathy or rhabdomyolysis. Report new or
worsening muscle pain, especially with elevated CK levels.
Q8.
A patient taking insulin glargine asks why it is given at bedtime. What is
the best response?
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A) It peaks to cover nighttime glucose needs
B) It prevents morning hypoglycemia
C) It replaces meals during the day
D) Timing is flexible, not important
Correct Answer: A) It peaks to cover nighttime glucose needs
Rationale: Insulin glargine is long-acting with no significant peak but
maintains basal insulin levels overnight; helps prevent hyperglycemia in
fasting periods.
Q9.
Which finding indicates hypoglycemia in a patient receiving insulin?
A) Polyuria and polydipsia
B) Confusion, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Weight gain
D) Constipation
Correct Answer: B) Confusion, sweating, and tachycardia
Rationale: Hypoglycemia presents with autonomic and neuroglycopenic
symptoms. Rapid intervention with glucose is required.
Q10.
Which patient teaching is essential for warfarin therapy?
A) Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
B) Avoid all forms of physical activity
C) Double the dose if a dose is missed
D) Take with milk only
Correct Answer: A) Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
Rationale: Sudden dietary changes in vitamin K can affect anticoagulation
levels. Patient education reduces risk of subtherapeutic or supratherapeutic
INR.
NSG 320 EXAM 2 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | ALL QUESTIONS &
CORRECT ANSWERS | UPDATED VERSION, 100% CORRECT
ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1.
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab
result should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Hemoglobin A1C
C) Serum calcium
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: A) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss.
Hypokalemia can lead to arrhythmias; monitor electrolytes regularly.
Q2.
A patient taking digoxin reports nausea, visual halos, and bradycardia. What
is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer the next scheduled dose
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
C) Encourage fluid intake
D) Monitor vital signs only
Correct Answer: B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: These are signs of digoxin toxicity. The drug should be held, and
serum digoxin and potassium levels assessed immediately.
,2|Page
Q3.
Which teaching is essential for a patient prescribed ACE inhibitors?
A) Report persistent cough or swelling of lips/tongue
B) Take with a high-sodium diet
C) Avoid potassium supplements
D) Discontinue if blood pressure drops
Correct Answer: A) Report persistent cough or swelling of lips/tongue
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause cough and angioedema. Potassium
supplements should be used cautiously, and sudden discontinuation should
be provider-guided.
Q4.
A patient receiving heparin develops sudden platelet drop. Which
complication is the nurse most concerned about?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C) Hypertension
D) Stroke
Correct Answer: B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Rationale: HIT is immune-mediated, leading to thrombocytopenia and
paradoxical clot formation. Immediate discontinuation and alternative
anticoagulation are required.
Q5.
Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient on loop
diuretics?
A) Mild thirst
B) Dizziness and muscle cramps
C) Occasional dry mouth
D) Mild fatigue
,3|Page
Correct Answer: B) Dizziness and muscle cramps
Rationale: These symptoms suggest electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia,
hyponatremia) and volume depletion; interventions include electrolyte
monitoring and supplementation.
Q6.
A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test must the nurse monitor to
ensure therapeutic effect?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) CBC
D) Serum potassium
Correct Answer: A) PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR
monitors anticoagulation; target INR is individualized, commonly 2–3.
Q7.
Which adverse effect is most concerning for statin therapy?
A) Muscle pain and weakness
B) Mild headache
C) Flushing
D) Dry mouth
Correct Answer: A) Muscle pain and weakness
Rationale: Statins can cause myopathy or rhabdomyolysis. Report new or
worsening muscle pain, especially with elevated CK levels.
Q8.
A patient taking insulin glargine asks why it is given at bedtime. What is
the best response?
, 4|Page
A) It peaks to cover nighttime glucose needs
B) It prevents morning hypoglycemia
C) It replaces meals during the day
D) Timing is flexible, not important
Correct Answer: A) It peaks to cover nighttime glucose needs
Rationale: Insulin glargine is long-acting with no significant peak but
maintains basal insulin levels overnight; helps prevent hyperglycemia in
fasting periods.
Q9.
Which finding indicates hypoglycemia in a patient receiving insulin?
A) Polyuria and polydipsia
B) Confusion, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Weight gain
D) Constipation
Correct Answer: B) Confusion, sweating, and tachycardia
Rationale: Hypoglycemia presents with autonomic and neuroglycopenic
symptoms. Rapid intervention with glucose is required.
Q10.
Which patient teaching is essential for warfarin therapy?
A) Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
B) Avoid all forms of physical activity
C) Double the dose if a dose is missed
D) Take with milk only
Correct Answer: A) Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
Rationale: Sudden dietary changes in vitamin K can affect anticoagulation
levels. Patient education reduces risk of subtherapeutic or supratherapeutic
INR.
