NR 511 Final Exam 2025| Chamberlain
University| Actual Exam Questions and
Correct Answers
1. Matthew, age 52, is a chef who just severed 2 of his fingers with a meat cutter. You would
recommend that he:
A) Apply a tourniquet to stop bleeding
B) Clean the wound and wrap the severed fingers in sterile gauze
C) Place the severed fingers in hot water to preserve them
D) Ignore the injury and continue working
Correct Answer: B) Clean the wound and wrap the severed fingers in sterile gauze
Explanation: For a traumatic amputation, the wound should be cleaned and covered with
sterile gauze to control bleeding and prevent infection. The severed fingers should be wrapped in
sterile gauze, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool (e.g., on ice, not in hot water) for potential
reattachment. A tourniquet is a last resort, and continuing work is unsafe.
2. The valgus stress test, varus stress test, Lachman test, and thumb sign are all considered
standard tests to check the integrity of the ligaments of the knee. Which test would the nurse
practitioner choose to assess the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), which is the most commonly
involved structure in severe knee injury?
A) Valgus stress test
B) Varus stress test
C) Lachman test
D) Thumb sign
Correct Answer: C) Lachman test
Explanation: The Lachman test is the most sensitive test for assessing ACL integrity,
detecting anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur. Valgus and varus stress tests
assess the medial and lateral collateral ligaments, respectively, and the thumb sign is not a
standard knee test.
,3. Lillian, age 70, was told that she has osteoporosis. When she asks you what this is, you
respond that osteoporosis:
A) Is a degenerative joint disease
B) Involves loss of bone density and increased fracture risk
C) Is caused by excessive calcium intake
D) Only occurs in premenopausal women
Correct Answer: B) Involves loss of bone density and increased fracture risk
Explanation: Osteoporosis is characterized by reduced bone density and strength, increasing
the risk of fractures, particularly in older adults. It is not a joint disease, not caused by excessive
calcium, and is more common in postmenopausal women and elderly individuals.
4. Mike, age 42, a golf pro, has had chronic back pain for many years. His workup reveals that it
is not the result of a degenerative disk problem. His back “goes out” about twice per year, and he
is out of work for about a week each time. Which of the following should the nurse practitioner
advise him to do?
A) Undergo spinal surgery
B) Engage in core strengthening exercises and physical therapy
C) Take long-term oral steroids
D) Avoid all physical activity
Correct Answer: B) Engage in core strengthening exercises and physical therapy
Explanation: For chronic, non-specific low back pain without degenerative disk disease, core
strengthening exercises and physical therapy are recommended to improve spinal stability and
reduce recurrence. Surgery is not indicated without structural issues, steroids are not appropriate
long-term, and avoiding activity may worsen symptoms.
5. Janine, age 69, has class III rheumatoid arthritis. According to the American Rheumatism
Association, which of the following describes her ability to function?
A) Normal function with no limitations
B) Able to perform most daily activities but limited in work or leisure
C) Unable to perform self-care or work activities
D) No joint involvement
, Correct Answer: B) Able to perform most daily activities but limited in work or leisure
Explanation: Class III rheumatoid arthritis (per the American College of Rheumatology
functional classification) indicates moderate disability, where patients can perform most daily
activities but have limitations in work or leisure due to joint pain and stiffness.
6. For an adult patient with a knee injury, the nurse practitioner orders a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID) to be taken on a routine basis for the next 2 weeks. Patient teaching
should include which of the following?
A) Take the NSAID on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
B) Avoid alcohol and monitor for gastrointestinal side effects
C) Discontinue the NSAID if pain resolves in 2 days
D) Take the NSAID with caffeine to enhance pain relief
Correct Answer: B) Avoid alcohol and monitor for gastrointestinal side effects
Explanation: NSAIDs can cause gastrointestinal irritation, bleeding, or ulceration, especially
when combined with alcohol. Patients should take NSAIDs with food, monitor for symptoms
like abdominal pain or black stools, and complete the prescribed course unless advised
otherwise.
7. Sean, a factory line worker, has osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hand. According to the
American College of Rheumatology (ACR), the guidelines for pharmacologic treatment include:
A) High-dose oral corticosteroids
B) Topical NSAIDs or acetaminophen
C) Methotrexate
D) Long-term opioid therapy
Correct Answer: B) Topical NSAIDs or acetaminophen
Explanation: ACR guidelines for hand OA recommend topical NSAIDs (e.g., diclofenac gel)
or acetaminophen as first-line treatments due to their efficacy and lower risk of systemic side
effects compared to oral NSAIDs, corticosteroids, or opioids.
8. Margaret, age 55, presents to you for evaluation of left hand and wrist pain and swelling after
a slip and fall on the ice yesterday. On examination, you note tenderness at her “anatomical
snuffbox.” You know this probably indicates a(n):
University| Actual Exam Questions and
Correct Answers
1. Matthew, age 52, is a chef who just severed 2 of his fingers with a meat cutter. You would
recommend that he:
A) Apply a tourniquet to stop bleeding
B) Clean the wound and wrap the severed fingers in sterile gauze
C) Place the severed fingers in hot water to preserve them
D) Ignore the injury and continue working
Correct Answer: B) Clean the wound and wrap the severed fingers in sterile gauze
Explanation: For a traumatic amputation, the wound should be cleaned and covered with
sterile gauze to control bleeding and prevent infection. The severed fingers should be wrapped in
sterile gauze, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool (e.g., on ice, not in hot water) for potential
reattachment. A tourniquet is a last resort, and continuing work is unsafe.
2. The valgus stress test, varus stress test, Lachman test, and thumb sign are all considered
standard tests to check the integrity of the ligaments of the knee. Which test would the nurse
practitioner choose to assess the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), which is the most commonly
involved structure in severe knee injury?
A) Valgus stress test
B) Varus stress test
C) Lachman test
D) Thumb sign
Correct Answer: C) Lachman test
Explanation: The Lachman test is the most sensitive test for assessing ACL integrity,
detecting anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur. Valgus and varus stress tests
assess the medial and lateral collateral ligaments, respectively, and the thumb sign is not a
standard knee test.
,3. Lillian, age 70, was told that she has osteoporosis. When she asks you what this is, you
respond that osteoporosis:
A) Is a degenerative joint disease
B) Involves loss of bone density and increased fracture risk
C) Is caused by excessive calcium intake
D) Only occurs in premenopausal women
Correct Answer: B) Involves loss of bone density and increased fracture risk
Explanation: Osteoporosis is characterized by reduced bone density and strength, increasing
the risk of fractures, particularly in older adults. It is not a joint disease, not caused by excessive
calcium, and is more common in postmenopausal women and elderly individuals.
4. Mike, age 42, a golf pro, has had chronic back pain for many years. His workup reveals that it
is not the result of a degenerative disk problem. His back “goes out” about twice per year, and he
is out of work for about a week each time. Which of the following should the nurse practitioner
advise him to do?
A) Undergo spinal surgery
B) Engage in core strengthening exercises and physical therapy
C) Take long-term oral steroids
D) Avoid all physical activity
Correct Answer: B) Engage in core strengthening exercises and physical therapy
Explanation: For chronic, non-specific low back pain without degenerative disk disease, core
strengthening exercises and physical therapy are recommended to improve spinal stability and
reduce recurrence. Surgery is not indicated without structural issues, steroids are not appropriate
long-term, and avoiding activity may worsen symptoms.
5. Janine, age 69, has class III rheumatoid arthritis. According to the American Rheumatism
Association, which of the following describes her ability to function?
A) Normal function with no limitations
B) Able to perform most daily activities but limited in work or leisure
C) Unable to perform self-care or work activities
D) No joint involvement
, Correct Answer: B) Able to perform most daily activities but limited in work or leisure
Explanation: Class III rheumatoid arthritis (per the American College of Rheumatology
functional classification) indicates moderate disability, where patients can perform most daily
activities but have limitations in work or leisure due to joint pain and stiffness.
6. For an adult patient with a knee injury, the nurse practitioner orders a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID) to be taken on a routine basis for the next 2 weeks. Patient teaching
should include which of the following?
A) Take the NSAID on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
B) Avoid alcohol and monitor for gastrointestinal side effects
C) Discontinue the NSAID if pain resolves in 2 days
D) Take the NSAID with caffeine to enhance pain relief
Correct Answer: B) Avoid alcohol and monitor for gastrointestinal side effects
Explanation: NSAIDs can cause gastrointestinal irritation, bleeding, or ulceration, especially
when combined with alcohol. Patients should take NSAIDs with food, monitor for symptoms
like abdominal pain or black stools, and complete the prescribed course unless advised
otherwise.
7. Sean, a factory line worker, has osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hand. According to the
American College of Rheumatology (ACR), the guidelines for pharmacologic treatment include:
A) High-dose oral corticosteroids
B) Topical NSAIDs or acetaminophen
C) Methotrexate
D) Long-term opioid therapy
Correct Answer: B) Topical NSAIDs or acetaminophen
Explanation: ACR guidelines for hand OA recommend topical NSAIDs (e.g., diclofenac gel)
or acetaminophen as first-line treatments due to their efficacy and lower risk of systemic side
effects compared to oral NSAIDs, corticosteroids, or opioids.
8. Margaret, age 55, presents to you for evaluation of left hand and wrist pain and swelling after
a slip and fall on the ice yesterday. On examination, you note tenderness at her “anatomical
snuffbox.” You know this probably indicates a(n):
