NR 511 Week 6 Complete Quiz Collection
2025| All Questions with Correct Answers
A 32 y/o male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and
flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion.
Which test should be the provider’s first choice?
A) Urinalysis
B) Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler
C) Urine culture
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct Answer: B) Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler
Explanation: Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler is the first-line test to differentiate testicular
torsion (decreased blood flow) from epididymitis (normal or increased flow) in acute scrotal
pain. Torsion is a surgical emergency, and ultrasound provides rapid, accurate diagnosis.
Urinalysis or culture may support epididymitis but are not definitive, and CBC is nonspecific.
A 51 y/o male requests a prescription for Viagra. He says that the only medication he takes is
isosorbide mononitrate oral tablets and that he has diabetes controlled with diet alone. What
should the nurse practitioner tell him?
A) “Viagra is safe to use with your current medications.”
B) “Viagra is contraindicated due to your isosorbide mononitrate use.”
C) “Viagra can be prescribed if you stop your diabetes diet.”
D) “You need a cardiac stress test before starting Viagra.”
Correct Answer: B) “Viagra is contraindicated due to your isosorbide mononitrate use.”
Explanation: Viagra (sildenafil) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates like isosorbide
mononitrate due to the risk of severe hypotension. Diabetes control does not affect this
contraindication, and a stress test is not relevant in this context.
, A 72 y/o unmarried, sexually active male presents to the clinic with complaints of hesitancy,
urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the nurse practitioner suspects benign
prostatic hyperplasia, what else should the differential diagnosis include?
A) Testicular cancer
B) Prostate cancer
C) Epididymitis
D) Varicocele
Correct Answer: B) Prostate cancer
Explanation: Hesitancy, urgency, and dribbling suggest benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH),
but prostate cancer must be considered in the differential for older males with lower urinary tract
symptoms (LUTS), as it can mimic BPH. Testicular cancer and varicocele typically cause scrotal
symptoms, and epididymitis presents with acute scrotal pain.
A 54 y/o male is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has a condition that has reduced
arterial blood flow to his penis. The most common cause of this condition is:
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Peyronie’s disease
C) Priapism
D) Testosterone deficiency
Correct Answer: A) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause of vasculogenic erectile
dysfunction due to reduced arterial blood flow from microvascular and macrovascular
complications. Peyronie’s disease causes penile curvature, priapism involves prolonged erection,
and testosterone deficiency affects libido more than vascular flow.
A 58 y/o male has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and says that a friend told him about
a method that uses a constricting ring around the base of the penis. What is he referring to?
A) Penile prosthesis
B) Vacuum erection device
C) Penile injection therapy
D) Testosterone replacement therapy
2025| All Questions with Correct Answers
A 32 y/o male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and
flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion.
Which test should be the provider’s first choice?
A) Urinalysis
B) Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler
C) Urine culture
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct Answer: B) Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler
Explanation: Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler is the first-line test to differentiate testicular
torsion (decreased blood flow) from epididymitis (normal or increased flow) in acute scrotal
pain. Torsion is a surgical emergency, and ultrasound provides rapid, accurate diagnosis.
Urinalysis or culture may support epididymitis but are not definitive, and CBC is nonspecific.
A 51 y/o male requests a prescription for Viagra. He says that the only medication he takes is
isosorbide mononitrate oral tablets and that he has diabetes controlled with diet alone. What
should the nurse practitioner tell him?
A) “Viagra is safe to use with your current medications.”
B) “Viagra is contraindicated due to your isosorbide mononitrate use.”
C) “Viagra can be prescribed if you stop your diabetes diet.”
D) “You need a cardiac stress test before starting Viagra.”
Correct Answer: B) “Viagra is contraindicated due to your isosorbide mononitrate use.”
Explanation: Viagra (sildenafil) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates like isosorbide
mononitrate due to the risk of severe hypotension. Diabetes control does not affect this
contraindication, and a stress test is not relevant in this context.
, A 72 y/o unmarried, sexually active male presents to the clinic with complaints of hesitancy,
urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the nurse practitioner suspects benign
prostatic hyperplasia, what else should the differential diagnosis include?
A) Testicular cancer
B) Prostate cancer
C) Epididymitis
D) Varicocele
Correct Answer: B) Prostate cancer
Explanation: Hesitancy, urgency, and dribbling suggest benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH),
but prostate cancer must be considered in the differential for older males with lower urinary tract
symptoms (LUTS), as it can mimic BPH. Testicular cancer and varicocele typically cause scrotal
symptoms, and epididymitis presents with acute scrotal pain.
A 54 y/o male is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has a condition that has reduced
arterial blood flow to his penis. The most common cause of this condition is:
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Peyronie’s disease
C) Priapism
D) Testosterone deficiency
Correct Answer: A) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause of vasculogenic erectile
dysfunction due to reduced arterial blood flow from microvascular and macrovascular
complications. Peyronie’s disease causes penile curvature, priapism involves prolonged erection,
and testosterone deficiency affects libido more than vascular flow.
A 58 y/o male has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and says that a friend told him about
a method that uses a constricting ring around the base of the penis. What is he referring to?
A) Penile prosthesis
B) Vacuum erection device
C) Penile injection therapy
D) Testosterone replacement therapy
