NR 511 Week 5 Complete Quiz Collection
2025| All Questions with Correct Answers
A 68-year-old man complains of lower abdominal pain, anorexia, extreme fatigue, an
unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds in the last 3 weeks, and you find a positive hemoccult on
digital rectal examination. Laboratory tests show iron deficiency anemia. Which diagnosis
should the NP consider?
A) Irritable bowel syndrome
B) Diverticulitis
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: C) Colorectal cancer
Explanation: Lower abdominal pain, significant unintentional weight loss, fatigue, iron
deficiency anemia, and a positive hemoccult test are red flags for colorectal cancer, especially in
an older adult. IBS lacks these systemic symptoms, diverticulitis typically causes acute pain, and
peptic ulcer disease is less likely to cause weight loss or positive hemoccult without upper GI
symptoms. Urgent referral for colonoscopy is warranted.
A 38-year-old male patient has recently had an ileostomy for ulcerative colitis. Which self-care
measures should the clinician teach him about to relieve food blockages?
A) Increase dietary fiber intake
B) Chew food thoroughly and drink fluids during meals
C) Avoid hydration to reduce output
D) Apply topical steroids to the stoma
Correct Answer: B) Chew food thoroughly and drink fluids during meals
Explanation: To prevent or relieve ileostomy food blockages, patients should chew food
thoroughly to reduce particle size and drink fluids to help flush the stoma. High fiber can worsen
blockages, avoiding hydration is harmful, and topical steroids are irrelevant for blockages.
, A 67-year-old female on multiple medications for chronic conditions was just diagnosed with
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In teaching the patient about the disease, what
medication should the clinician recommend that the patient refrain from using?
A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) Calcium carbonate antacids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Explanation: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen) can exacerbate GERD by irritating the esophageal and
gastric mucosa. Proton pump inhibitors and antacids are used to treat GERD, and beta-blockers
are unrelated to GERD management.
An 82-year-old female has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome, chronic constipation,
and diverticulosis following a colonoscopy. Which pharmacological agent should the clinician
recommend?
A) Loperamide
B) Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX)
C) Omeprazole
D) Mesalamine
Correct Answer: B) Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX)
Explanation: For chronic constipation in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C) and diverticulosis,
polyethylene glycol, an osmotic laxative, is safe and effective for promoting regular bowel
movements in the elderly. Loperamide is for diarrhea, omeprazole for acid reflux, and
mesalamine for inflammatory bowel disease.
A 29-year-old female just returned from Central America with traveler’s diarrhea and presents to
the clinic for evaluation. Which of the following is the best treatment?
A) Oral rehydration therapy and observation
B) Intravenous antibiotics
C) Oral corticosteroids
D) Anthelmintic therapy
2025| All Questions with Correct Answers
A 68-year-old man complains of lower abdominal pain, anorexia, extreme fatigue, an
unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds in the last 3 weeks, and you find a positive hemoccult on
digital rectal examination. Laboratory tests show iron deficiency anemia. Which diagnosis
should the NP consider?
A) Irritable bowel syndrome
B) Diverticulitis
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: C) Colorectal cancer
Explanation: Lower abdominal pain, significant unintentional weight loss, fatigue, iron
deficiency anemia, and a positive hemoccult test are red flags for colorectal cancer, especially in
an older adult. IBS lacks these systemic symptoms, diverticulitis typically causes acute pain, and
peptic ulcer disease is less likely to cause weight loss or positive hemoccult without upper GI
symptoms. Urgent referral for colonoscopy is warranted.
A 38-year-old male patient has recently had an ileostomy for ulcerative colitis. Which self-care
measures should the clinician teach him about to relieve food blockages?
A) Increase dietary fiber intake
B) Chew food thoroughly and drink fluids during meals
C) Avoid hydration to reduce output
D) Apply topical steroids to the stoma
Correct Answer: B) Chew food thoroughly and drink fluids during meals
Explanation: To prevent or relieve ileostomy food blockages, patients should chew food
thoroughly to reduce particle size and drink fluids to help flush the stoma. High fiber can worsen
blockages, avoiding hydration is harmful, and topical steroids are irrelevant for blockages.
, A 67-year-old female on multiple medications for chronic conditions was just diagnosed with
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In teaching the patient about the disease, what
medication should the clinician recommend that the patient refrain from using?
A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) Calcium carbonate antacids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Explanation: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen) can exacerbate GERD by irritating the esophageal and
gastric mucosa. Proton pump inhibitors and antacids are used to treat GERD, and beta-blockers
are unrelated to GERD management.
An 82-year-old female has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome, chronic constipation,
and diverticulosis following a colonoscopy. Which pharmacological agent should the clinician
recommend?
A) Loperamide
B) Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX)
C) Omeprazole
D) Mesalamine
Correct Answer: B) Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX)
Explanation: For chronic constipation in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C) and diverticulosis,
polyethylene glycol, an osmotic laxative, is safe and effective for promoting regular bowel
movements in the elderly. Loperamide is for diarrhea, omeprazole for acid reflux, and
mesalamine for inflammatory bowel disease.
A 29-year-old female just returned from Central America with traveler’s diarrhea and presents to
the clinic for evaluation. Which of the following is the best treatment?
A) Oral rehydration therapy and observation
B) Intravenous antibiotics
C) Oral corticosteroids
D) Anthelmintic therapy
