1|Page
NUR 100 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 FORTIS COLLEGE LATEST
2025-2026 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED
A+/ NUR 100 LATEST EXAM,100% CORRECT, GUARANTEE PASS
1. A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Correct Answer: C — Potassium
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion → risk of
hypokalemia (muscle weakness, dysrhythmias).
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test
guides safe dosing?
A. aPTT
B. CBC
C. INR
D. Electrolytes
Correct Answer: C — INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored with INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation).
3. Which client statement indicates correct understanding of
nitroglycerin sublingual use?
,2|Page
A. “I can swallow the tablet with water.”
B. “I will place the tablet under my tongue until it dissolves.”
C. “I can take as many as I want until pain goes away.”
D. “I’ll take it on a full stomach.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual route allows rapid absorption; do not chew/swallow.
4. A nurse prepares to give digoxin. Which finding would require
holding the medication?
A. HR 72 bpm
B. BP 118/70
C. HR 48 bpm
D. Temp 99°F
Correct Answer: C — HR 48
Rationale: Hold digoxin if apical pulse <60 bpm; notify provider.
5. A client taking morphine develops respiratory depression. Which
medication should be available?
A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: C — Naloxone
Rationale: Opioid antagonist reverses respiratory depression.
6. Which antibiotic should be avoided in children due to tooth
discoloration?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
,3|Page
C. Cephalosporin
D. Macrolide
Correct Answer: B — Tetracycline
Rationale: Tetracyclines bind calcium in teeth/bone, causing discoloration
and growth issues.
7. A nurse is teaching about insulin lispro. Which statement shows
correct understanding?
A. “I should take it at bedtime.”
B. “I will take it once daily.”
C. “I should inject it right before meals.”
D. “I can take it without food.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting; give immediately before meals to prevent
hypoglycemia.
8. A client on gentamicin reports ringing in the ears. What should the
nurse do?
A. Document as normal
B. Hold the medication and notify provider
C. Give next dose as scheduled
D. Increase fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ototoxicity is an adverse effect of aminoglycosides → report
immediately.
9. Which is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
, 4|Page
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin’s anticoagulant effects.
10. A client on albuterol inhaler reports hand tremors and palpitations.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop medication
B. Reassure this is a common side effect
C. Give an antidote
D. Increase dose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta₂ agonists can cause tremors, tachycardia, palpitations →
expected, but monitor.
11. Which adverse effect is associated with ACE inhibitors (e.g.,
lisinopril)?
A. Bradycardia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Constipation
D. Sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin → dry cough.
12. The nurse prepares to give metoprolol. Which condition is most
concerning?
A. Hypertension
B. Migraine
NUR 100 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 FORTIS COLLEGE LATEST
2025-2026 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED
A+/ NUR 100 LATEST EXAM,100% CORRECT, GUARANTEE PASS
1. A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Correct Answer: C — Potassium
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion → risk of
hypokalemia (muscle weakness, dysrhythmias).
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test
guides safe dosing?
A. aPTT
B. CBC
C. INR
D. Electrolytes
Correct Answer: C — INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored with INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation).
3. Which client statement indicates correct understanding of
nitroglycerin sublingual use?
,2|Page
A. “I can swallow the tablet with water.”
B. “I will place the tablet under my tongue until it dissolves.”
C. “I can take as many as I want until pain goes away.”
D. “I’ll take it on a full stomach.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual route allows rapid absorption; do not chew/swallow.
4. A nurse prepares to give digoxin. Which finding would require
holding the medication?
A. HR 72 bpm
B. BP 118/70
C. HR 48 bpm
D. Temp 99°F
Correct Answer: C — HR 48
Rationale: Hold digoxin if apical pulse <60 bpm; notify provider.
5. A client taking morphine develops respiratory depression. Which
medication should be available?
A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: C — Naloxone
Rationale: Opioid antagonist reverses respiratory depression.
6. Which antibiotic should be avoided in children due to tooth
discoloration?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
,3|Page
C. Cephalosporin
D. Macrolide
Correct Answer: B — Tetracycline
Rationale: Tetracyclines bind calcium in teeth/bone, causing discoloration
and growth issues.
7. A nurse is teaching about insulin lispro. Which statement shows
correct understanding?
A. “I should take it at bedtime.”
B. “I will take it once daily.”
C. “I should inject it right before meals.”
D. “I can take it without food.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting; give immediately before meals to prevent
hypoglycemia.
8. A client on gentamicin reports ringing in the ears. What should the
nurse do?
A. Document as normal
B. Hold the medication and notify provider
C. Give next dose as scheduled
D. Increase fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ototoxicity is an adverse effect of aminoglycosides → report
immediately.
9. Which is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
, 4|Page
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin’s anticoagulant effects.
10. A client on albuterol inhaler reports hand tremors and palpitations.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop medication
B. Reassure this is a common side effect
C. Give an antidote
D. Increase dose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta₂ agonists can cause tremors, tachycardia, palpitations →
expected, but monitor.
11. Which adverse effect is associated with ACE inhibitors (e.g.,
lisinopril)?
A. Bradycardia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Constipation
D. Sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin → dry cough.
12. The nurse prepares to give metoprolol. Which condition is most
concerning?
A. Hypertension
B. Migraine
