N314 Med-Surg HESI Exam GRADED A+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED 2025-2026
A male client receives a local anesthetic during surgery. During the post-
operative assessment, the nurse notices the client is slurring his speech.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Determine the client is anxious and allow him to sleep.
B) Evaluate his blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory status.
C) Review the client's pre-operative history for alcohol abuse.
D) Continue to monitor the client for reactivity to anesthesia.
B) Evaluate his blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory status.
Feedback:
Slurred speech in the post-operative client who received a local anesthetic is an
atypical finding and may indicate neurological deficits that require further
assessment, so obtaining the client's vital signs (B) will provide information about
possible cardiovascular complications, such as stroke. The client's anxiety (A), a
history of alcohol abuse (D), or local anesthesia (D) are unrelated to the client's
sudden onset of slurred speech.
Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with
trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)?
A) Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties.
B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin.
C) Facial weakness and paralysis.
D) Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing.
B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin.
Feedback:
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric
,shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (5th
cranial) (B). (A) would be characteristic of Méniére's disease (8th cranial nerve). (C)
would be characteristic of Bell's palsy (7th cranial nerve). (D) would be characteristic
of disorders of the hypoglossal cranial nerve (12th).
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of
hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding should the nurse consider an
indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting.
D) Difficulty in handwriting.
Feedback:
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of
hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not
seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an increase in serum
ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for hyperlipidemia should be
evaluated for what vitamin deficiency?
K
Feedback:
Clients should be monitored for an increased prothrombin time and prolonged
bleeding times which would alert the nurse to a vitamin K deficiency. These drugs
reduce absorption of the fat soluble (lipid) vitamins A, D, E, and K.
Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare
the client for which treatment protocol?
Anticoagulation therapy.
Feedback:
The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for
anticoagulation therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm control
,therapies to prevent cardioembolic events which result from blood pooling in the
fibrillating atria
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function
tests because of recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and
serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the nurse conclude as an early
symptom of renal insufficiency?
Nocturia
Feedback:
As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic
waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols,
hormones, electrolytes, accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal
insufficiency, polyuria results from the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine
and contribute to nocturia
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice
rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and pressure
across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate?
Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
Feedback:
Vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries can lead to angina and myocardial
infarction, and should be counteracted by IV nitroglycerin per prescribed protocol
The nurse is completing an admission interview and assessment on a client
with a history of Parkinson's disease. Which question should provide
information relevant to the client's plan of care?
Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
Feedback:
Clients with Parkinson's disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating,
maintaining, and performing motor activities. They may even experience being
rooted to the spot and unable to move
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for
the past 5 years. What symptoms should this client most likely exhibit?
Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
, An elderly male client comes to the geriatric screening clinic complaining of
pain in his left calf. The nurse notices a reddened area on the calf of his right
leg which is warm to the touch and suspects it might be thrombophlebitis.
Which type of pain should further confirm this suspicion?
Pain in the calf upon exertion which is relieved by rest and elevating the extremity.
The healthcare provider prescribes aluminum and magnesium hydroxide
(Maalox), 1 tablet PO PRN, for a client with chronic renal failure who is
complaining of indigestion. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Question the healthcare provider's prescription
A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the
following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because
he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to
provide to this client?
The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of
foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model,
which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become
compliant with the prescribed diet?
He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
The nurse is planning to initiate a socialization group for older residents of a
long-term facility. Which information is most useful to the nurse when
planning activities for the group?
The usual activity patterns of each member of the group.
A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has
lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and
inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and
denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?
Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.
The nurse is planning care for a client who has a right hemispheric stroke.
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness.
Two days postoperative, a male client reports aching pain in his left leg. The
nurse assesses redness and warmth on the lower left calf. What intervention
should be most helpful to this client?
VERIFIED 2025-2026
A male client receives a local anesthetic during surgery. During the post-
operative assessment, the nurse notices the client is slurring his speech.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Determine the client is anxious and allow him to sleep.
B) Evaluate his blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory status.
C) Review the client's pre-operative history for alcohol abuse.
D) Continue to monitor the client for reactivity to anesthesia.
B) Evaluate his blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory status.
Feedback:
Slurred speech in the post-operative client who received a local anesthetic is an
atypical finding and may indicate neurological deficits that require further
assessment, so obtaining the client's vital signs (B) will provide information about
possible cardiovascular complications, such as stroke. The client's anxiety (A), a
history of alcohol abuse (D), or local anesthesia (D) are unrelated to the client's
sudden onset of slurred speech.
Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with
trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)?
A) Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties.
B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin.
C) Facial weakness and paralysis.
D) Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing.
B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin.
Feedback:
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric
,shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (5th
cranial) (B). (A) would be characteristic of Méniére's disease (8th cranial nerve). (C)
would be characteristic of Bell's palsy (7th cranial nerve). (D) would be characteristic
of disorders of the hypoglossal cranial nerve (12th).
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of
hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding should the nurse consider an
indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting.
D) Difficulty in handwriting.
Feedback:
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of
hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not
seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an increase in serum
ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for hyperlipidemia should be
evaluated for what vitamin deficiency?
K
Feedback:
Clients should be monitored for an increased prothrombin time and prolonged
bleeding times which would alert the nurse to a vitamin K deficiency. These drugs
reduce absorption of the fat soluble (lipid) vitamins A, D, E, and K.
Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare
the client for which treatment protocol?
Anticoagulation therapy.
Feedback:
The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for
anticoagulation therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm control
,therapies to prevent cardioembolic events which result from blood pooling in the
fibrillating atria
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function
tests because of recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and
serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the nurse conclude as an early
symptom of renal insufficiency?
Nocturia
Feedback:
As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic
waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols,
hormones, electrolytes, accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal
insufficiency, polyuria results from the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine
and contribute to nocturia
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice
rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and pressure
across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate?
Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion.
Feedback:
Vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries can lead to angina and myocardial
infarction, and should be counteracted by IV nitroglycerin per prescribed protocol
The nurse is completing an admission interview and assessment on a client
with a history of Parkinson's disease. Which question should provide
information relevant to the client's plan of care?
Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
Feedback:
Clients with Parkinson's disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating,
maintaining, and performing motor activities. They may even experience being
rooted to the spot and unable to move
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for
the past 5 years. What symptoms should this client most likely exhibit?
Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
, An elderly male client comes to the geriatric screening clinic complaining of
pain in his left calf. The nurse notices a reddened area on the calf of his right
leg which is warm to the touch and suspects it might be thrombophlebitis.
Which type of pain should further confirm this suspicion?
Pain in the calf upon exertion which is relieved by rest and elevating the extremity.
The healthcare provider prescribes aluminum and magnesium hydroxide
(Maalox), 1 tablet PO PRN, for a client with chronic renal failure who is
complaining of indigestion. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Question the healthcare provider's prescription
A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the
following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because
he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to
provide to this client?
The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of
foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model,
which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become
compliant with the prescribed diet?
He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
The nurse is planning to initiate a socialization group for older residents of a
long-term facility. Which information is most useful to the nurse when
planning activities for the group?
The usual activity patterns of each member of the group.
A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has
lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and
inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and
denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?
Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.
The nurse is planning care for a client who has a right hemispheric stroke.
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness.
Two days postoperative, a male client reports aching pain in his left leg. The
nurse assesses redness and warmth on the lower left calf. What intervention
should be most helpful to this client?
