ESTUDYR
UTA CP2 FNP FINAL MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. Which test screens for previous Hepatitis B infection?
a) HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen)
b) HBeAg (Hepatitis B Envelope Antigen)
c) HBcAb (Hepatitis B Core Antibody) ✅
d) Anti-HBs (Hepatitis B Surface Antibody)
Rationale:
HBcAb indicates prior exposure/infection.
HBsAg detects active infection.
HBeAg shows high viral replication/infectivity.
Anti-HBs shows immunity after vaccination or recovery.
2. Which test is used to screen for an active Hepatitis B infection?
a) HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen) ✅
b) Anti-HBs
c) HBcAb
d) HBeAg
Rationale:
HBsAg is the hallmark of an active infection.
Anti-HBs = immunity.
HBcAb = prior exposure.
HBeAg = infectivity but not used for screening alone.
3. Which criteria must be met to diagnose AIDS?
a) CD4 count <500
b) Positive ELISA test
c) CD4 count ≤200 PLUS an indicator condition ✅
d) Presence of HIV antibodies only
Rationale:
Correct: AIDS is defined by CD4 ≤200 and/or an AIDS-defining illness (e.g., Kaposi’s
sarcoma, recurrent infections).
HIV antibodies only = HIV infection, not AIDS.
CD4 <500 = HIV disease progression, not AIDS.
4. What is the recommended initial treatment for HIV?
a) 2 antiretrovirals from 1 class
b) 4 antiretrovirals from the same class
c) 3 antiretrovirals from at least 2 classes ✅
d) 2 protease inhibitors only
Rationale:
, ESTUDYR
Correct: Combination therapy (ART) prevents resistance. Standard regimen = 3 drugs
from ≥2 classes.
Monotherapy/dual therapy leads to rapid resistance.
5. HIV treatment has which major benefits?
a) Prevents transmission
b) Protects immune system
c) Prevents progression to AIDS
d) All of the above ✅
Rationale:
All are correct: ART reduces viral load → lowers transmission, slows disease, and
preserves immunity.
6. Truvada is used for which purpose?
a) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
b) Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) ✅
c) HIV treatment in AIDS patients
d) Opportunistic infection prevention
Rationale:
Correct: Truvada (tenofovir + emtricitabine) is used as PrEP to prevent HIV in high-risk
individuals.
7. The most likely causative organism of acute otitis media is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae ✅
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Rationale:
Correct: S. pneumoniae is the most common.
H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis are also possible.
8. What is the recommended antibiotic treatment for pediatric acute otitis media?
a) Azithromycin 10 mg/kg
b) Amoxicillin 80–90 mg/kg divided q12h ✅
c) Ceftriaxone IM
d) Doxycycline
Rationale:
Correct: High-dose amoxicillin is first-line in children.
Macrolides are used if penicillin allergy.
Doxycycline contraindicated in kids.
9. Conversion of pounds to kilograms is approximately:
a) Multiply pounds × 3
b) Multiply pounds × 0.75
UTA CP2 FNP FINAL MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. Which test screens for previous Hepatitis B infection?
a) HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen)
b) HBeAg (Hepatitis B Envelope Antigen)
c) HBcAb (Hepatitis B Core Antibody) ✅
d) Anti-HBs (Hepatitis B Surface Antibody)
Rationale:
HBcAb indicates prior exposure/infection.
HBsAg detects active infection.
HBeAg shows high viral replication/infectivity.
Anti-HBs shows immunity after vaccination or recovery.
2. Which test is used to screen for an active Hepatitis B infection?
a) HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen) ✅
b) Anti-HBs
c) HBcAb
d) HBeAg
Rationale:
HBsAg is the hallmark of an active infection.
Anti-HBs = immunity.
HBcAb = prior exposure.
HBeAg = infectivity but not used for screening alone.
3. Which criteria must be met to diagnose AIDS?
a) CD4 count <500
b) Positive ELISA test
c) CD4 count ≤200 PLUS an indicator condition ✅
d) Presence of HIV antibodies only
Rationale:
Correct: AIDS is defined by CD4 ≤200 and/or an AIDS-defining illness (e.g., Kaposi’s
sarcoma, recurrent infections).
HIV antibodies only = HIV infection, not AIDS.
CD4 <500 = HIV disease progression, not AIDS.
4. What is the recommended initial treatment for HIV?
a) 2 antiretrovirals from 1 class
b) 4 antiretrovirals from the same class
c) 3 antiretrovirals from at least 2 classes ✅
d) 2 protease inhibitors only
Rationale:
, ESTUDYR
Correct: Combination therapy (ART) prevents resistance. Standard regimen = 3 drugs
from ≥2 classes.
Monotherapy/dual therapy leads to rapid resistance.
5. HIV treatment has which major benefits?
a) Prevents transmission
b) Protects immune system
c) Prevents progression to AIDS
d) All of the above ✅
Rationale:
All are correct: ART reduces viral load → lowers transmission, slows disease, and
preserves immunity.
6. Truvada is used for which purpose?
a) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
b) Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) ✅
c) HIV treatment in AIDS patients
d) Opportunistic infection prevention
Rationale:
Correct: Truvada (tenofovir + emtricitabine) is used as PrEP to prevent HIV in high-risk
individuals.
7. The most likely causative organism of acute otitis media is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae ✅
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Rationale:
Correct: S. pneumoniae is the most common.
H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis are also possible.
8. What is the recommended antibiotic treatment for pediatric acute otitis media?
a) Azithromycin 10 mg/kg
b) Amoxicillin 80–90 mg/kg divided q12h ✅
c) Ceftriaxone IM
d) Doxycycline
Rationale:
Correct: High-dose amoxicillin is first-line in children.
Macrolides are used if penicillin allergy.
Doxycycline contraindicated in kids.
9. Conversion of pounds to kilograms is approximately:
a) Multiply pounds × 3
b) Multiply pounds × 0.75
