JB LEARNING EMT FINAL EXAM /JB LEARNING EMT FINAL
EXAM PREP/JB LEARNING EMT FINAL EXAM PRACTICE
ACTUAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS|AGRADE
You arrive on scene to a 52-year-old male complaining of sudden onset of
severe, crushing chest pain. He is pale and diaphoretic. Your first priority is
to:
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
B) Obtain a blood pressure.
C) Administer aspirin.
D) Complete a primary assessment.
E) Obtain a detailed medical history.
Correct Answer: D) Complete a primary assessment.
Rationale: The primary assessment (forming a general impression,
assessing mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, and
determining patient priority) is always the first step for any medical
or trauma patient to identify and address immediate life threats.
Question 2
When assessing an unresponsive adult patient, you should check for a pulse
at the:
A) Radial artery.
B) Brachial artery.
C) Pedal artery.
D) Carotid artery.
E) Femoral artery.
Correct Answer: D) Carotid artery.
Rationale: The carotid artery in the neck is the most accessible and
reliable pulse point to check in an unresponsive adult patient.
Question 3
A 6-month-old infant is apneic and pulseless. What is the correct
compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer CPR?
A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
B) 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
C) 5 compressions to 1 ventilation.
D) Continuous compressions with 1 ventilation every 3 seconds.
E) 10 compressions to 1 ventilation.
Correct Answer: A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
Rationale: For two-rescuer infant CPR, the ratio is 15 compressions
to 2 ventilations to provide more frequent ventilations to infants
and children, whose cardiac arrest is often respiratory in origin.
,Question 4
Which of the following describes the proper depth for chest compressions on
an adult patient during CPR?
A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm).
B) At least 1.5 inches (3.8 cm).
C) At least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm).
D) At least 2.5 inches (6.4 cm).
E) No more than 1 inch (2.5 cm).
Correct Answer: C) At least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4
inches (6 cm).
Rationale: Current AHA guidelines recommend a compression depth
of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm) for
adult CPR to ensure adequate blood flow while minimizing injury.
Question 5
You are called to a construction site for a patient who has a large piece of
rebar impaled in his abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A) Carefully remove the rebar to assess the wound.
B) Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
C) Stabilize the impaled object in place.
D) Apply direct pressure to the wound around the rebar.
E) Push the rebar through the abdomen to control bleeding.
Correct Answer: C) Stabilize the impaled object in place.
Rationale: Impaled objects should generally be stabilized in place to
prevent further internal damage and bleeding. Removal should only
be done if it obstructs the airway or prevents proper CPR
compressions.
Question 6
A 72-year-old male is unresponsive and has a blood glucose reading of 45
mg/dL. He has a history of diabetes. What is the most appropriate treatment,
assuming an IV is established by paramedics?
A) Administer oral glucose gel.
B) Administer D50 (Dextrose 50%).
C) Administer insulin.
D) Administer glucagon (IM).
E) Transport immediately without intervention.
Correct Answer: B) Administer D50 (Dextrose 50%).
Rationale: For an unresponsive adult patient with severe
hypoglycemia, intravenous D50 is the preferred treatment to rapidly
raise blood glucose. Oral glucose is for conscious patients. Glucagon
,is an alternative if IV access isn't immediately available or outside
paramedic scope.
Question 7
What is the primary purpose of a Jaw-Thrust Maneuver?
A) To open the airway in a patient with suspected spinal injury.
B) To clear the mouth of foreign objects.
C) To stimulate breathing in an apneic patient.
D) To assess the patient's pain response.
E) To apply a cervical collar.
Correct Answer: A) To open the airway in a patient with suspected
spinal injury.
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway
without extending the neck, which is crucial for patients with
suspected spinal injuries to minimize cervical spine movement.
Question 8
A 28-year-old female is experiencing a severe allergic reaction after eating
peanuts. She is tachypneic, hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg), and has diffuse
urticaria. After activating ALS, what is your most critical initial intervention?
A) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
B) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally.
C) Assist the patient in administering her prescribed epinephrine auto-
injector.
D) Obtain a detailed medical history.
E) Provide emotional support.
Correct Answer: C) Assist the patient in administering her
prescribed epinephrine auto-injector.
Rationale: For severe anaphylaxis with hypotension and respiratory
distress, epinephrine is the critical, life-saving medication. Assisting
with a prescribed auto-injector is within the EMT scope and should
be a priority.
Question 9
You arrive on scene to a single-car motor vehicle collision. The patient is a
35-year-old male, conscious, but complains of severe pain and deformity to
his right femur. What type of splint is most appropriate for this injury?
A) Air splint.
B) Sam splint (moldable).
C) Rigid splint (e.g., board splint).
D) Traction splint.
, E) Sling and swathe.
Correct Answer: D) Traction splint.
Rationale: A traction splint is specifically designed for isolated
midshaft femur fractures. It applies gentle pulling force to reduce
muscle spasm, stabilize the fracture, and alleviate pain.
Question 10
During an assessment of a patient with suspected stroke, you perform the
Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale. Which of the following is not one of the
components of this scale?
A) Facial droop.
B) Arm drift.
C) Speech difficulty.
D) Pupil reactivity.
E) All are components.
Correct Answer: D) Pupil reactivity.
Rationale: The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses for
facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech. Pupil reactivity is part
of a neurological exam but not specifically the Cincinnati scale.
Question 11
What is the most immediate life threat in a patient with an open
pneumothorax (sucking chest wound)?
A) Hemorrhage from the wound.
B) Potential for a tension pneumothorax.
C) Infection.
D) Pain.
E) Air embolism.
Correct Answer: B) Potential for a tension pneumothorax.
Rationale: An open pneumothorax allows air to enter the pleural
space directly through the chest wall. If the opening is occluded, or
if internal lung injury is also present, air can become trapped,
leading to a life-threatening tension pneumothorax.
Question 12
When performing continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), what is the
primary benefit for a patient in respiratory distress?
A) It increases the heart rate.
B) It reduces the work of breathing and improves oxygenation.
C) It directly removes fluid from the lungs.
D) It bypasses the need for oxygen administration.
EXAM PREP/JB LEARNING EMT FINAL EXAM PRACTICE
ACTUAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS|AGRADE
You arrive on scene to a 52-year-old male complaining of sudden onset of
severe, crushing chest pain. He is pale and diaphoretic. Your first priority is
to:
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
B) Obtain a blood pressure.
C) Administer aspirin.
D) Complete a primary assessment.
E) Obtain a detailed medical history.
Correct Answer: D) Complete a primary assessment.
Rationale: The primary assessment (forming a general impression,
assessing mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, and
determining patient priority) is always the first step for any medical
or trauma patient to identify and address immediate life threats.
Question 2
When assessing an unresponsive adult patient, you should check for a pulse
at the:
A) Radial artery.
B) Brachial artery.
C) Pedal artery.
D) Carotid artery.
E) Femoral artery.
Correct Answer: D) Carotid artery.
Rationale: The carotid artery in the neck is the most accessible and
reliable pulse point to check in an unresponsive adult patient.
Question 3
A 6-month-old infant is apneic and pulseless. What is the correct
compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer CPR?
A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
B) 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
C) 5 compressions to 1 ventilation.
D) Continuous compressions with 1 ventilation every 3 seconds.
E) 10 compressions to 1 ventilation.
Correct Answer: A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
Rationale: For two-rescuer infant CPR, the ratio is 15 compressions
to 2 ventilations to provide more frequent ventilations to infants
and children, whose cardiac arrest is often respiratory in origin.
,Question 4
Which of the following describes the proper depth for chest compressions on
an adult patient during CPR?
A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm).
B) At least 1.5 inches (3.8 cm).
C) At least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm).
D) At least 2.5 inches (6.4 cm).
E) No more than 1 inch (2.5 cm).
Correct Answer: C) At least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4
inches (6 cm).
Rationale: Current AHA guidelines recommend a compression depth
of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm) for
adult CPR to ensure adequate blood flow while minimizing injury.
Question 5
You are called to a construction site for a patient who has a large piece of
rebar impaled in his abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A) Carefully remove the rebar to assess the wound.
B) Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
C) Stabilize the impaled object in place.
D) Apply direct pressure to the wound around the rebar.
E) Push the rebar through the abdomen to control bleeding.
Correct Answer: C) Stabilize the impaled object in place.
Rationale: Impaled objects should generally be stabilized in place to
prevent further internal damage and bleeding. Removal should only
be done if it obstructs the airway or prevents proper CPR
compressions.
Question 6
A 72-year-old male is unresponsive and has a blood glucose reading of 45
mg/dL. He has a history of diabetes. What is the most appropriate treatment,
assuming an IV is established by paramedics?
A) Administer oral glucose gel.
B) Administer D50 (Dextrose 50%).
C) Administer insulin.
D) Administer glucagon (IM).
E) Transport immediately without intervention.
Correct Answer: B) Administer D50 (Dextrose 50%).
Rationale: For an unresponsive adult patient with severe
hypoglycemia, intravenous D50 is the preferred treatment to rapidly
raise blood glucose. Oral glucose is for conscious patients. Glucagon
,is an alternative if IV access isn't immediately available or outside
paramedic scope.
Question 7
What is the primary purpose of a Jaw-Thrust Maneuver?
A) To open the airway in a patient with suspected spinal injury.
B) To clear the mouth of foreign objects.
C) To stimulate breathing in an apneic patient.
D) To assess the patient's pain response.
E) To apply a cervical collar.
Correct Answer: A) To open the airway in a patient with suspected
spinal injury.
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway
without extending the neck, which is crucial for patients with
suspected spinal injuries to minimize cervical spine movement.
Question 8
A 28-year-old female is experiencing a severe allergic reaction after eating
peanuts. She is tachypneic, hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg), and has diffuse
urticaria. After activating ALS, what is your most critical initial intervention?
A) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
B) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally.
C) Assist the patient in administering her prescribed epinephrine auto-
injector.
D) Obtain a detailed medical history.
E) Provide emotional support.
Correct Answer: C) Assist the patient in administering her
prescribed epinephrine auto-injector.
Rationale: For severe anaphylaxis with hypotension and respiratory
distress, epinephrine is the critical, life-saving medication. Assisting
with a prescribed auto-injector is within the EMT scope and should
be a priority.
Question 9
You arrive on scene to a single-car motor vehicle collision. The patient is a
35-year-old male, conscious, but complains of severe pain and deformity to
his right femur. What type of splint is most appropriate for this injury?
A) Air splint.
B) Sam splint (moldable).
C) Rigid splint (e.g., board splint).
D) Traction splint.
, E) Sling and swathe.
Correct Answer: D) Traction splint.
Rationale: A traction splint is specifically designed for isolated
midshaft femur fractures. It applies gentle pulling force to reduce
muscle spasm, stabilize the fracture, and alleviate pain.
Question 10
During an assessment of a patient with suspected stroke, you perform the
Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale. Which of the following is not one of the
components of this scale?
A) Facial droop.
B) Arm drift.
C) Speech difficulty.
D) Pupil reactivity.
E) All are components.
Correct Answer: D) Pupil reactivity.
Rationale: The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses for
facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech. Pupil reactivity is part
of a neurological exam but not specifically the Cincinnati scale.
Question 11
What is the most immediate life threat in a patient with an open
pneumothorax (sucking chest wound)?
A) Hemorrhage from the wound.
B) Potential for a tension pneumothorax.
C) Infection.
D) Pain.
E) Air embolism.
Correct Answer: B) Potential for a tension pneumothorax.
Rationale: An open pneumothorax allows air to enter the pleural
space directly through the chest wall. If the opening is occluded, or
if internal lung injury is also present, air can become trapped,
leading to a life-threatening tension pneumothorax.
Question 12
When performing continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), what is the
primary benefit for a patient in respiratory distress?
A) It increases the heart rate.
B) It reduces the work of breathing and improves oxygenation.
C) It directly removes fluid from the lungs.
D) It bypasses the need for oxygen administration.
