CNOR EXAM AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS /CNOR EXAM
PREPARATION ACTUAL EXAM 700 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
Which of the following describes the sterile field in the operating room?
A) The entire operating room.
B) The area on the client's skin that has been prepped.
C) The area immediately around the client, draped with sterile
barriers, including sterile tables and personnel.
D) Only the instrument table.
E) Only the surgeon's hands.
Correct Answer: C) The area immediately around the client, draped
with sterile barriers, including sterile tables and personnel.
Rationale: The sterile field is the area that has been prepared to
contain sterile equipment and to exclude unsterile contamination
during a surgical procedure, ensuring patient safety from infection.
Question 2
When opening a sterile package, the circulating nurse should:
A) Open the first flap towards them.
B) Touch the inside of the wrapper to ensure sterility.
C) Open the first flap away from them.
D) Allow the inner contents to slide onto the sterile field.
E) Stand directly over the sterile field.
Correct Answer: C) Open the first flap away from them.
Rationale: The first flap of a sterile package should be opened away
from the person opening it to prevent their unsterile arm from
reaching over and contaminating the sterile contents as subsequent
flaps are opened.
Question 3
Which anesthetic agent is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker commonly
used for rapid sequence intubation due to its quick onset and short duration
of action?
A) Vecuronium.
B) Rocuronium.
C) Pancuronium.
D) Succinylcholine.
E) Cisatracurium.
Correct Answer: D) Succinylcholine.
,Rationale: Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular
blocker. It causes rapid, transient muscle fasciculations followed by
paralysis, making it ideal for rapid sequence induction where quick
intubation is critical.
Question 4
What is the primary purpose of the "time out" procedure before a surgical
incision?
A) To allow the surgical team to take a break.
B) To confirm client billing information.
C) To verify the correct client, correct procedure, and correct
surgical site.
D) To obtain final consent from the client.
E) To review the client's entire medical history.
Correct Answer: C) To verify the correct client, correct procedure,
and correct surgical site.
Rationale: The "time out" is a critical safety pause performed
immediately before incision to prevent wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-person surgery, ensuring all team members
agree on these critical details.
Question 5
When transporting a client to the operating room, what is
the priority consideration for the perioperative nurse?
A) Ensuring the client has signed all consent forms.
B) Verifying the client's diet status.
C) Client identification and safety (e.g., side rails up, proper body
mechanics).
D) Confirming the surgical schedule.
E) Discussing the surgical procedure in detail.
Correct Answer: C) Client identification and safety (e.g., side rails
up, proper body mechanics).
Rationale: Client identification (using at least two identifiers) and
ensuring their physical safety during transport are paramount.
While consent and diet status are important, safe transport is an
immediate priority.
Question 6
Which medication is typically administered to reverse the effects of a non-
depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (e.g., rocuronium)?
A) Epinephrine.
,B) Naloxone.
C) Neostigmine or Sugammadex.
D) Atropine.
E) Propofol.
Correct Answer: C) Neostigmine or Sugammadex.
Rationale: Neostigmine (often given with an anticholinergic like
glycopyrrolate to counteract muscarinic effects) and sugammadex
are commonly used to reverse the paralysis induced by non-
depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, allowing the client to regain
muscle function.
Question 7
During surgical hand antisepsis, the perioperative nurse should scrub for a
minimum of:
A) 1 minute.
B) 2-5 minutes (depending on facility policy and product).
C) 10 minutes.
D) Until hands feel clean.
E) Only if hands are visibly soiled.
Correct Answer: B) 2-5 minutes (depending on facility policy and
product).
Rationale: Surgical hand antisepsis aims to significantly reduce
transient and resident flora. While specific times vary by product
and facility, the standard range for a traditional brush scrub is
typically 2-5 minutes, with alcohol-based rubs having specific
application times.
Question 8
What is the purpose of placing a pneumatic tourniquet on an extremity
during surgery?
A) To prevent DVT.
B) To reduce client pain.
C) To create a bloodless surgical field.
D) To control postoperative swelling.
E) To provide limb support.
Correct Answer: C) To create a bloodless surgical field.
Rationale: A pneumatic tourniquet is inflated to a pressure above
systolic blood pressure to temporarily occlude arterial blood flow to
an extremity, allowing the surgeon to operate in a clearer, bloodless
field.
, Question 9
Which of the following is a common early sign of malignant hyperthermia
(MH) during surgery?
A) Sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2.
B) Bradycardia.
C) Unexpected rise in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and muscle rigidity.
D) Hypothermia.
E) Hypertension.
Correct Answer: C) Unexpected rise in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and
muscle rigidity.
Rationale: An unexplained and rapid increase in end-tidal CO2
(ETCO2) is often the earliest and most sensitive indicator of
malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis,
followed by muscle rigidity and tachycardia.
Question 10
When positioning a client for surgery, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Ensuring maximum surgical exposure.
B) Minimizing staff discomfort.
C) Preventing nerve damage and skin breakdown.
D) Completing the procedure quickly.
E) Allowing the client to choose their position.
Correct Answer: C) Preventing nerve damage and skin breakdown.
Rationale: Proper client positioning is critical to prevent pressure
injuries, nerve damage, and circulatory compromise. It requires
careful padding and consideration of the client's physiological
status and surgical approach.
Question 11
What is the primary purpose of a surgical "count" (e.g., sponges,
instruments)?
A) To track inventory for billing.
B) To estimate blood loss.
C) To prevent retained surgical items (RSIs).
D) To ensure all team members are present.
E) To verify the client's identity.
Correct Answer: C) To prevent retained surgical items (RSIs).
Rationale: Surgical counts are a critical safety measure designed to
ensure that no sponges, sharps, instruments, or other items are
inadvertently left inside the client after the procedure, which can
lead to severe complications.
PREPARATION ACTUAL EXAM 700 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
Which of the following describes the sterile field in the operating room?
A) The entire operating room.
B) The area on the client's skin that has been prepped.
C) The area immediately around the client, draped with sterile
barriers, including sterile tables and personnel.
D) Only the instrument table.
E) Only the surgeon's hands.
Correct Answer: C) The area immediately around the client, draped
with sterile barriers, including sterile tables and personnel.
Rationale: The sterile field is the area that has been prepared to
contain sterile equipment and to exclude unsterile contamination
during a surgical procedure, ensuring patient safety from infection.
Question 2
When opening a sterile package, the circulating nurse should:
A) Open the first flap towards them.
B) Touch the inside of the wrapper to ensure sterility.
C) Open the first flap away from them.
D) Allow the inner contents to slide onto the sterile field.
E) Stand directly over the sterile field.
Correct Answer: C) Open the first flap away from them.
Rationale: The first flap of a sterile package should be opened away
from the person opening it to prevent their unsterile arm from
reaching over and contaminating the sterile contents as subsequent
flaps are opened.
Question 3
Which anesthetic agent is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker commonly
used for rapid sequence intubation due to its quick onset and short duration
of action?
A) Vecuronium.
B) Rocuronium.
C) Pancuronium.
D) Succinylcholine.
E) Cisatracurium.
Correct Answer: D) Succinylcholine.
,Rationale: Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular
blocker. It causes rapid, transient muscle fasciculations followed by
paralysis, making it ideal for rapid sequence induction where quick
intubation is critical.
Question 4
What is the primary purpose of the "time out" procedure before a surgical
incision?
A) To allow the surgical team to take a break.
B) To confirm client billing information.
C) To verify the correct client, correct procedure, and correct
surgical site.
D) To obtain final consent from the client.
E) To review the client's entire medical history.
Correct Answer: C) To verify the correct client, correct procedure,
and correct surgical site.
Rationale: The "time out" is a critical safety pause performed
immediately before incision to prevent wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-person surgery, ensuring all team members
agree on these critical details.
Question 5
When transporting a client to the operating room, what is
the priority consideration for the perioperative nurse?
A) Ensuring the client has signed all consent forms.
B) Verifying the client's diet status.
C) Client identification and safety (e.g., side rails up, proper body
mechanics).
D) Confirming the surgical schedule.
E) Discussing the surgical procedure in detail.
Correct Answer: C) Client identification and safety (e.g., side rails
up, proper body mechanics).
Rationale: Client identification (using at least two identifiers) and
ensuring their physical safety during transport are paramount.
While consent and diet status are important, safe transport is an
immediate priority.
Question 6
Which medication is typically administered to reverse the effects of a non-
depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (e.g., rocuronium)?
A) Epinephrine.
,B) Naloxone.
C) Neostigmine or Sugammadex.
D) Atropine.
E) Propofol.
Correct Answer: C) Neostigmine or Sugammadex.
Rationale: Neostigmine (often given with an anticholinergic like
glycopyrrolate to counteract muscarinic effects) and sugammadex
are commonly used to reverse the paralysis induced by non-
depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, allowing the client to regain
muscle function.
Question 7
During surgical hand antisepsis, the perioperative nurse should scrub for a
minimum of:
A) 1 minute.
B) 2-5 minutes (depending on facility policy and product).
C) 10 minutes.
D) Until hands feel clean.
E) Only if hands are visibly soiled.
Correct Answer: B) 2-5 minutes (depending on facility policy and
product).
Rationale: Surgical hand antisepsis aims to significantly reduce
transient and resident flora. While specific times vary by product
and facility, the standard range for a traditional brush scrub is
typically 2-5 minutes, with alcohol-based rubs having specific
application times.
Question 8
What is the purpose of placing a pneumatic tourniquet on an extremity
during surgery?
A) To prevent DVT.
B) To reduce client pain.
C) To create a bloodless surgical field.
D) To control postoperative swelling.
E) To provide limb support.
Correct Answer: C) To create a bloodless surgical field.
Rationale: A pneumatic tourniquet is inflated to a pressure above
systolic blood pressure to temporarily occlude arterial blood flow to
an extremity, allowing the surgeon to operate in a clearer, bloodless
field.
, Question 9
Which of the following is a common early sign of malignant hyperthermia
(MH) during surgery?
A) Sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2.
B) Bradycardia.
C) Unexpected rise in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and muscle rigidity.
D) Hypothermia.
E) Hypertension.
Correct Answer: C) Unexpected rise in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and
muscle rigidity.
Rationale: An unexplained and rapid increase in end-tidal CO2
(ETCO2) is often the earliest and most sensitive indicator of
malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis,
followed by muscle rigidity and tachycardia.
Question 10
When positioning a client for surgery, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Ensuring maximum surgical exposure.
B) Minimizing staff discomfort.
C) Preventing nerve damage and skin breakdown.
D) Completing the procedure quickly.
E) Allowing the client to choose their position.
Correct Answer: C) Preventing nerve damage and skin breakdown.
Rationale: Proper client positioning is critical to prevent pressure
injuries, nerve damage, and circulatory compromise. It requires
careful padding and consideration of the client's physiological
status and surgical approach.
Question 11
What is the primary purpose of a surgical "count" (e.g., sponges,
instruments)?
A) To track inventory for billing.
B) To estimate blood loss.
C) To prevent retained surgical items (RSIs).
D) To ensure all team members are present.
E) To verify the client's identity.
Correct Answer: C) To prevent retained surgical items (RSIs).
Rationale: Surgical counts are a critical safety measure designed to
ensure that no sponges, sharps, instruments, or other items are
inadvertently left inside the client after the procedure, which can
lead to severe complications.
