ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam | Versions
1–3 | 2025/2026 Latest Edition | Verified
Questions with Correct Answers | Graded A+
The ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam is designed to assess readiness for the
NCLEX-RN, covering all major areas of nursing practice. This updated 2025/2026 complete
package (Versions 1, 2 & 3) includes verified exam-based questions and correct answers
with rationales. Content areas include fundamentals, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing,
pediatrics, maternal newborn, psychiatric nursing, leadership, delegation, and priority-setting.
Overview
This comprehensive study and exam-prep resource contains authentic ATI Comprehensive
Predictor questions with 100% correct answers, ensuring alignment with test objectives.
Designed to improve clinical judgment, strengthen nursing core knowledge, and maximize
NCLEX predictor success. Rated and graded A+ for reliability and accuracy.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each answer is paired with a rationale to
reinforce evidence-based practice, enhance comprehension, and ensure mastery of ATI test
concepts.
1. (Fundamentals) What is the first step in the nursing process?
a) Planning
b) Assessment
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
b) Assessment
Rationale: Assessment is the first step, involving data collection to identify patient needs,
forming the basis for all subsequent steps in the nursing process.
2. (Pharmacology) What is a common side effect of lisinopril?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Bradycardia
a) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion, which decreases potassium excretion.
,3. (Medical-Surgical) What is a priority nursing action for a patient with
chest pain?
a) Administer acetaminophen
b) Obtain an ECG
c) Encourage ambulation
d) Provide a high-fat meal
b) Obtain an ECG
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate a cardiac event; obtaining an ECG is critical to assess for
ischemia or infarction.
4. (Pediatrics) What is a key sign of dehydration in an infant?
a) Increased urine output
b) Sunken fontanelles
c) Hyperactivity
d) Weight gain
b) Sunken fontanelles
Rationale: Sunken fontanelles indicate dehydration in infants due to fluid loss affecting
intracranial pressure.
5. (Maternal Newborn) What is a priority assessment for a postpartum
patient?
a) Checking blood glucose
b) Assessing for uterine involution
c) Monitoring respiratory rate
d) Evaluating skin turgor
b) Assessing for uterine involution
Rationale: Uterine involution assessment detects complications like postpartum hemorrhage.
6. (Psychiatric Nursing) What is a therapeutic response to a patient with
depression?
a) “You should cheer up.”
b) “I’m here to listen to how you’re feeling.”
c) “Your problems aren’t that serious.”
d) “Just try to think positively.”
b) “I’m here to listen to how you’re feeling.”
Rationale: Offering empathetic listening validates the patient’s feelings and fosters therapeutic
communication.
7. (Leadership) What is a nurse’s role in a code blue?
a) Leave the room to avoid interference
b) Document the event and assist as needed
c) Administer medications without orders
d) Ignore the code team
b) Document the event and assist as needed
Rationale: Nurses document and support the code team, ensuring effective resuscitation efforts.
, 8. (Delegation) Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
a) Administering IV medications
b) Taking vital signs
c) Developing a care plan
d) Assessing pain levels
b) Taking vital signs
Rationale: Taking vital signs is within a UAP’s scope, while medication administration and
assessments require RN licensure.
9. (Priority-Setting) Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a) Stable patient awaiting discharge
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
c) Patient requesting pain medication
d) Patient with a scheduled dressing change
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
Rationale: Dyspnea and low oxygen saturation indicate a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate attention.
10. (Fundamentals) What is a key infection control measure?
a) Reusing gloves
b) Proper hand hygiene
c) Avoiding PPE
d) Ignoring isolation protocols
b) Proper hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
11. (Pharmacology) What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking
warfarin?
a) Blood glucose
b) INR levels
c) Sodium levels
d) Heart rate
b) INR levels
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation and prevent
bleeding or clotting.
12. (Medical-Surgical) What is a sign of hypovolemic shock?
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypertension
d) Hyperthermia
b) Tachycardia
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory response to decreased blood volume in hypovolemic
shock.
1–3 | 2025/2026 Latest Edition | Verified
Questions with Correct Answers | Graded A+
The ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam is designed to assess readiness for the
NCLEX-RN, covering all major areas of nursing practice. This updated 2025/2026 complete
package (Versions 1, 2 & 3) includes verified exam-based questions and correct answers
with rationales. Content areas include fundamentals, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing,
pediatrics, maternal newborn, psychiatric nursing, leadership, delegation, and priority-setting.
Overview
This comprehensive study and exam-prep resource contains authentic ATI Comprehensive
Predictor questions with 100% correct answers, ensuring alignment with test objectives.
Designed to improve clinical judgment, strengthen nursing core knowledge, and maximize
NCLEX predictor success. Rated and graded A+ for reliability and accuracy.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each answer is paired with a rationale to
reinforce evidence-based practice, enhance comprehension, and ensure mastery of ATI test
concepts.
1. (Fundamentals) What is the first step in the nursing process?
a) Planning
b) Assessment
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
b) Assessment
Rationale: Assessment is the first step, involving data collection to identify patient needs,
forming the basis for all subsequent steps in the nursing process.
2. (Pharmacology) What is a common side effect of lisinopril?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Bradycardia
a) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion, which decreases potassium excretion.
,3. (Medical-Surgical) What is a priority nursing action for a patient with
chest pain?
a) Administer acetaminophen
b) Obtain an ECG
c) Encourage ambulation
d) Provide a high-fat meal
b) Obtain an ECG
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate a cardiac event; obtaining an ECG is critical to assess for
ischemia or infarction.
4. (Pediatrics) What is a key sign of dehydration in an infant?
a) Increased urine output
b) Sunken fontanelles
c) Hyperactivity
d) Weight gain
b) Sunken fontanelles
Rationale: Sunken fontanelles indicate dehydration in infants due to fluid loss affecting
intracranial pressure.
5. (Maternal Newborn) What is a priority assessment for a postpartum
patient?
a) Checking blood glucose
b) Assessing for uterine involution
c) Monitoring respiratory rate
d) Evaluating skin turgor
b) Assessing for uterine involution
Rationale: Uterine involution assessment detects complications like postpartum hemorrhage.
6. (Psychiatric Nursing) What is a therapeutic response to a patient with
depression?
a) “You should cheer up.”
b) “I’m here to listen to how you’re feeling.”
c) “Your problems aren’t that serious.”
d) “Just try to think positively.”
b) “I’m here to listen to how you’re feeling.”
Rationale: Offering empathetic listening validates the patient’s feelings and fosters therapeutic
communication.
7. (Leadership) What is a nurse’s role in a code blue?
a) Leave the room to avoid interference
b) Document the event and assist as needed
c) Administer medications without orders
d) Ignore the code team
b) Document the event and assist as needed
Rationale: Nurses document and support the code team, ensuring effective resuscitation efforts.
, 8. (Delegation) Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
a) Administering IV medications
b) Taking vital signs
c) Developing a care plan
d) Assessing pain levels
b) Taking vital signs
Rationale: Taking vital signs is within a UAP’s scope, while medication administration and
assessments require RN licensure.
9. (Priority-Setting) Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a) Stable patient awaiting discharge
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
c) Patient requesting pain medication
d) Patient with a scheduled dressing change
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
Rationale: Dyspnea and low oxygen saturation indicate a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate attention.
10. (Fundamentals) What is a key infection control measure?
a) Reusing gloves
b) Proper hand hygiene
c) Avoiding PPE
d) Ignoring isolation protocols
b) Proper hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
11. (Pharmacology) What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking
warfarin?
a) Blood glucose
b) INR levels
c) Sodium levels
d) Heart rate
b) INR levels
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation and prevent
bleeding or clotting.
12. (Medical-Surgical) What is a sign of hypovolemic shock?
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypertension
d) Hyperthermia
b) Tachycardia
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory response to decreased blood volume in hypovolemic
shock.
