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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 | Latest Practice Questions, Verified Answers & Rationales

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Prepare with confidence using our ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2025/2026 practice questions and answers. This updated guide includes verified, detailed, and realistic NCLEX-style questions covering medical-surgical, pediatrics, maternity, pharmacology, and mental health nursing. Each question comes with correct answers and rationales to strengthen your critical thinking and test-taking strategies. Ideal for nursing students aiming for an A+ grade, this resource helps you master key concepts, improve exam readiness, and succeed on the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor. Get the latest and most reliable study material to pass your exam on the first attempt.

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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2026 | LATEST
PRACTICE QUESTIONS, VERIFIED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES,100% CORRECT ALREADY GRADED A+




1. Which concept best describes the overall focus of medical-surgical
nursing?
A. Acute care only
B. Nursing of patients with chronic illness only
C. Care of adult patients with diverse health problems in various
settings
D. Care focused only on surgical patients
Answer: C. Care of adult patients with diverse health problems in
various settings
Rationale: Medical-surgical nursing encompasses care of adult
patients with acute, chronic, or rehabilitative needs across multiple
health care settings, not limited to hospitals or surgery.


2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV furosemide. Which
assessment finding is most important to report to the provider?
A. Mild muscle cramping
B. Weight loss of 0.5 kg in 24 hours
C. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
D. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
Answer: C. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
Rationale: Hypokalemia is a serious adverse effect of loop diuretics
like furosemide and can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. This
finding requires immediate provider notification.

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3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing shakiness,
sweating, and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Recheck blood glucose in 30 minutes
B. Administer 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Notify the health care provider
D. Administer the scheduled dose of insulin
Answer: B. Administer 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: The client shows signs of hypoglycemia. The immediate
intervention is to give a simple carbohydrate (e.g., juice or glucose
tablets) to quickly raise blood glucose.


4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about nitroglycerin
sublingual tablets. Which client statement indicates correct
understanding?
A. “I should swallow the tablet immediately with water.”
B. “I can take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart, for chest pain.”
C. “I should keep the tablets in my bathroom cabinet.”
D. “I can take this medication with erectile dysfunction drugs.”
Answer: B. I can take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart, for
chest pain.
Rationale: Clients should place nitroglycerin under the tongue and
may take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart. Tablets must be stored in
a dark container and never combined with erectile dysfunction drugs
(risk of severe hypotension).


5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which finding
indicates fluid volume overload?
A. Flat neck veins
B. Bounding peripheral pulses
C. Dry mucous membranes
D. Decreased blood pressure
Answer: B. Bounding peripheral pulses
Rationale: Signs of fluid overload include bounding pulses, jugular

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venous distention, edema, and crackles in the lungs. Flat neck veins
and dry mucous membranes indicate dehydration.
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client taking warfarin. Which
food should the nurse teach the client to avoid excessive intake of?
A. Apples
B. Spinach
C. Rice
D. Chicken
Answer: B. Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can decrease the
effectiveness of warfarin. Clients should maintain consistent vitamin
K intake.


7. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who is receiving oxygen
at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Which finding indicates effective
therapy?
A. SaO₂ 95%
B. Respiratory rate 28/min
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Persistent cyanosis
Answer: A. SaO₂ 95%
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 95% shows adequate
oxygenation. Tachypnea, accessory muscle use, and cyanosis indicate
respiratory distress.


8. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia. Which finding
should the nurse expect?
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
C. Bradycardia
D. Muscle hypertonicity
Answer: A. Hypoactive bowel sounds

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Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause decreased gastrointestinal
motility, muscle weakness, and cardiac dysrhythmias.


9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed levothyroxine.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should take this medication at bedtime with food.”
B. “I should expect to take this medication for life.”
C. “I can stop taking this medicine once my thyroid hormone level is
normal.”
D. “I should take this medication with calcium supplements.”
Answer: B. I should expect to take this medication for life.
Rationale: Levothyroxine is a lifelong replacement therapy for
hypothyroidism. It should be taken in the morning on an empty
stomach.


10.A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving IV morphine. Which
assessment is the priority?
A. Pain relief
B. Respiratory rate
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Constipation
Answer: B. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. Airway and
breathing must be monitored first.


11.A nurse is providing care to a client who has a nasogastric tube for
gastric decompression. Which action is appropriate?
A. Keep the head of the bed flat
B. Measure abdominal girth every 8 hours
C. Provide oral care every 2 hours
D. Clamp the tube every 30 minutes
Answer: C. Provide oral care every 2 hours

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