WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY
GRADED A+
Question 1
An EMT is conducting a secondary assessment on a conscious medical
patient. Which component of the SAMPLE history helps to determine if the
patient has any pre-existing conditions?
A) Signs and Symptoms
B) Allergies
C) Medications
D) Past Medical History
E) Last Oral Intake
Correct Answer: D) Past Medical History
Rationale: The "P" in SAMPLE history stands for Past Medical History,
which includes any existing medical conditions, surgeries, or
significant illnesses that could be relevant to the current
emergency.
Question 2
When assessing a patient's pupils, what does "PERRL" stand for?
A) Pain, Eye Response, Reflexive, Reactivity, Light
B) Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light
C) Pupils Equal, Round, Reflexive, Reactivity, Lagging
D) Pressure, Eye Response, Reflexive, Respiratory, Lungs
E) Patient's Eyes React Rapidly to Light
Correct Answer: B) Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light
Rationale: PERRL is a common mnemonic used during neurological
assessment to document that the pupils are equal in size, round in
shape, and constrict appropriately in response to light stimulation.
Question 3
Which of the following is a classic sign of compensated shock?
A) Significantly decreased blood pressure.
B) Bradycardia (slow heart rate).
C) Tachycardia and pale, cool, diaphoretic skin.
D) Unresponsiveness.
E) Warm, flushed skin.
Correct Answer: C) Tachycardia and pale, cool, diaphoretic skin.
Rationale: In compensated shock, the body's compensatory
mechanisms are still able to maintain adequate blood pressure and
perfusion. Signs include an increased heart rate (tachycardia),
,constricted peripheral blood vessels (pale, cool skin), and increased
sweating (diaphoresis).
Question 4
An EMT is managing a patient with severe external arterial bleeding from a
laceration on the forearm. After applying direct pressure and elevating the
limb, bleeding continues. What is the next appropriate step?
A) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
B) Apply an ice pack to the wound.
C) Administer oxygen and transport immediately.
D) Continuously elevate the limb without further pressure.
E) Apply pressure to a pressure point in the groin.
Correct Answer: A) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
Rationale: If direct pressure and elevation are insufficient to control
severe, life-threatening external bleeding, the next step is to apply
a tourniquet proximal (closer to the body) to the injury to
completely occlude arterial flow.
Question 5
What is the primary purpose of applying a rigid splint to a suspected
fractured extremity?
A) To reduce swelling in the extremity.
B) To stop all pain instantly.
C) To immobilize the injury and prevent further damage.
D) To realign the bone fragments.
E) To warm the extremity.
Correct Answer: C) To immobilize the injury and prevent further
damage.
Rationale: Splinting aims to stabilize a suspected fracture or
dislocation, reducing pain, preventing further injury to soft tissues,
nerves, or blood vessels, and minimizing movement of the bone
ends.
Question 6
Which type of burn is characterized by redness, pain, and blistering, affecting
both the epidermis and parts of the dermis?
A) Superficial (first-degree) burn.
B) Partial-thickness (second-degree) burn.
C) Full-thickness (third-degree) burn.
D) Fourth-degree burn.
E) Chemical burn.
,Correct Answer: B) Partial-thickness (second-degree) burn.
Rationale: Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and varying
depths of the dermis. They present with intense pain, redness, and
characteristic blisters due to fluid accumulation.
Question 7
An EMT is assessing a patient with a suspected head injury who is exhibiting
unequal pupils. This finding is most indicative of:
A) Spinal cord injury.
B) Internal bleeding in the abdomen.
C) Increased intracranial pressure.
D) Hypoglycemia.
E) Bone fracture in the face.
Correct Answer: C) Increased intracranial pressure.
Rationale: Unequal pupils (anisocoria), especially when associated
with a head injury, are a classic sign of increased intracranial
pressure (ICP), which can compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
affecting pupillary response.
Question 8
When caring for a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the EMT should
ensure manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck until:
A) The patient reports no pain.
B) The patient is fully immobilized on a backboard or similar device.
C) The patient arrives at the hospital.
D) The patient loses consciousness.
E) The patient can move their extremities.
Correct Answer: B) The patient is fully immobilized on a backboard or
similar device.
Rationale: Manual in-line stabilization (MILS) must be maintained
from the moment a spinal injury is suspected until the patient is
completely secured to a spinal immobilization device (e.g., long
backboard, KED) to prevent further movement and potential injury
to the spinal cord.
Question 9
What is the primary assessment finding in a patient experiencing
anaphylaxis?
A) Slow onset of symptoms.
B) Localized itching and swelling.
C) Hives and a runny nose only.
, D) Life-threatening airway compromise and/or circulatory shock.
E) Mild stomach ache.
Correct Answer: D) Life-threatening airway compromise and/or
circulatory shock.
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe, systemic allergic reaction that
progresses rapidly and can cause life-threatening airway swelling
(stridor, difficulty breathing) and/or circulatory collapse (shock,
hypotension).
Question 10
An EMT is managing a patient with an altered mental status due to
suspected hypoglycemia. The patient is conscious and able to swallow. What
is the appropriate intervention?
A) Administer an insulin injection.
B) Offer a diet soda.
C) Administer oral glucose (e.g., glucose gel).
D) Place the patient in the recovery position.
E) Provide high-flow oxygen.
Correct Answer: C) Administer oral glucose (e.g., glucose gel).
Rationale: For a conscious patient with suspected hypoglycemia who
can protect their airway and swallow, administering oral glucose is
the rapid and appropriate intervention to raise blood sugar levels.
Question 11
Which of the following is a common sign of decompensated shock?
A) Normal blood pressure.
B) Warm, dry skin.
C) Hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
D) Alert and oriented mental status.
E) Strong, bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: C) Hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Rationale: Decompensated shock occurs when the body's
compensatory mechanisms can no longer maintain adequate blood
pressure and perfusion. A significant drop in blood pressure
(hypotension) is a key indicator of decompensation, signifying a
critical stage.
Question 12
When performing a detailed physical examination on a trauma patient, the
EMT should use which mnemonic to guide the assessment?
A) SAMPLE
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY
GRADED A+
Question 1
An EMT is conducting a secondary assessment on a conscious medical
patient. Which component of the SAMPLE history helps to determine if the
patient has any pre-existing conditions?
A) Signs and Symptoms
B) Allergies
C) Medications
D) Past Medical History
E) Last Oral Intake
Correct Answer: D) Past Medical History
Rationale: The "P" in SAMPLE history stands for Past Medical History,
which includes any existing medical conditions, surgeries, or
significant illnesses that could be relevant to the current
emergency.
Question 2
When assessing a patient's pupils, what does "PERRL" stand for?
A) Pain, Eye Response, Reflexive, Reactivity, Light
B) Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light
C) Pupils Equal, Round, Reflexive, Reactivity, Lagging
D) Pressure, Eye Response, Reflexive, Respiratory, Lungs
E) Patient's Eyes React Rapidly to Light
Correct Answer: B) Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light
Rationale: PERRL is a common mnemonic used during neurological
assessment to document that the pupils are equal in size, round in
shape, and constrict appropriately in response to light stimulation.
Question 3
Which of the following is a classic sign of compensated shock?
A) Significantly decreased blood pressure.
B) Bradycardia (slow heart rate).
C) Tachycardia and pale, cool, diaphoretic skin.
D) Unresponsiveness.
E) Warm, flushed skin.
Correct Answer: C) Tachycardia and pale, cool, diaphoretic skin.
Rationale: In compensated shock, the body's compensatory
mechanisms are still able to maintain adequate blood pressure and
perfusion. Signs include an increased heart rate (tachycardia),
,constricted peripheral blood vessels (pale, cool skin), and increased
sweating (diaphoresis).
Question 4
An EMT is managing a patient with severe external arterial bleeding from a
laceration on the forearm. After applying direct pressure and elevating the
limb, bleeding continues. What is the next appropriate step?
A) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
B) Apply an ice pack to the wound.
C) Administer oxygen and transport immediately.
D) Continuously elevate the limb without further pressure.
E) Apply pressure to a pressure point in the groin.
Correct Answer: A) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
Rationale: If direct pressure and elevation are insufficient to control
severe, life-threatening external bleeding, the next step is to apply
a tourniquet proximal (closer to the body) to the injury to
completely occlude arterial flow.
Question 5
What is the primary purpose of applying a rigid splint to a suspected
fractured extremity?
A) To reduce swelling in the extremity.
B) To stop all pain instantly.
C) To immobilize the injury and prevent further damage.
D) To realign the bone fragments.
E) To warm the extremity.
Correct Answer: C) To immobilize the injury and prevent further
damage.
Rationale: Splinting aims to stabilize a suspected fracture or
dislocation, reducing pain, preventing further injury to soft tissues,
nerves, or blood vessels, and minimizing movement of the bone
ends.
Question 6
Which type of burn is characterized by redness, pain, and blistering, affecting
both the epidermis and parts of the dermis?
A) Superficial (first-degree) burn.
B) Partial-thickness (second-degree) burn.
C) Full-thickness (third-degree) burn.
D) Fourth-degree burn.
E) Chemical burn.
,Correct Answer: B) Partial-thickness (second-degree) burn.
Rationale: Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and varying
depths of the dermis. They present with intense pain, redness, and
characteristic blisters due to fluid accumulation.
Question 7
An EMT is assessing a patient with a suspected head injury who is exhibiting
unequal pupils. This finding is most indicative of:
A) Spinal cord injury.
B) Internal bleeding in the abdomen.
C) Increased intracranial pressure.
D) Hypoglycemia.
E) Bone fracture in the face.
Correct Answer: C) Increased intracranial pressure.
Rationale: Unequal pupils (anisocoria), especially when associated
with a head injury, are a classic sign of increased intracranial
pressure (ICP), which can compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
affecting pupillary response.
Question 8
When caring for a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the EMT should
ensure manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck until:
A) The patient reports no pain.
B) The patient is fully immobilized on a backboard or similar device.
C) The patient arrives at the hospital.
D) The patient loses consciousness.
E) The patient can move their extremities.
Correct Answer: B) The patient is fully immobilized on a backboard or
similar device.
Rationale: Manual in-line stabilization (MILS) must be maintained
from the moment a spinal injury is suspected until the patient is
completely secured to a spinal immobilization device (e.g., long
backboard, KED) to prevent further movement and potential injury
to the spinal cord.
Question 9
What is the primary assessment finding in a patient experiencing
anaphylaxis?
A) Slow onset of symptoms.
B) Localized itching and swelling.
C) Hives and a runny nose only.
, D) Life-threatening airway compromise and/or circulatory shock.
E) Mild stomach ache.
Correct Answer: D) Life-threatening airway compromise and/or
circulatory shock.
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe, systemic allergic reaction that
progresses rapidly and can cause life-threatening airway swelling
(stridor, difficulty breathing) and/or circulatory collapse (shock,
hypotension).
Question 10
An EMT is managing a patient with an altered mental status due to
suspected hypoglycemia. The patient is conscious and able to swallow. What
is the appropriate intervention?
A) Administer an insulin injection.
B) Offer a diet soda.
C) Administer oral glucose (e.g., glucose gel).
D) Place the patient in the recovery position.
E) Provide high-flow oxygen.
Correct Answer: C) Administer oral glucose (e.g., glucose gel).
Rationale: For a conscious patient with suspected hypoglycemia who
can protect their airway and swallow, administering oral glucose is
the rapid and appropriate intervention to raise blood sugar levels.
Question 11
Which of the following is a common sign of decompensated shock?
A) Normal blood pressure.
B) Warm, dry skin.
C) Hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
D) Alert and oriented mental status.
E) Strong, bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: C) Hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Rationale: Decompensated shock occurs when the body's
compensatory mechanisms can no longer maintain adequate blood
pressure and perfusion. A significant drop in blood pressure
(hypotension) is a key indicator of decompensation, signifying a
critical stage.
Question 12
When performing a detailed physical examination on a trauma patient, the
EMT should use which mnemonic to guide the assessment?
A) SAMPLE
