FISDAP AIRWAY EXAM 3 VERSIONS (VERSION A, B & C)
LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
Question 1
Which anatomical structure is responsible for warming and humidifying
inspired air?
A) Larynx
B) Trachea
C) Nasopharynx
D) Bronchi
E) Alveoli
Correct Answer: C) Nasopharynx
Rationale: The nasopharynx, with its vascular mucous membranes
and turbinates, is primarily responsible for warming, filtering, and
humidifying inspired air before it reaches the lower respiratory
tract.
Question 2
A 72-year-old male client presents with severe respiratory distress, oxygen
saturation of 85% on room air, and is lethargic. His respiratory rate is 8
breaths/min and shallow. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) with supplemental
oxygen.
D) Simple face mask at 10 L/min
E) Place an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) only.
Correct Answer: C) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM)
with supplemental oxygen.
Rationale: The client is severely hypoxemic and hypoventilating
(lethargic, shallow, slow respiratory rate). Passive oxygen delivery
devices are insufficient. Ventilatory assistance with a BVM is
immediately required to improve both oxygenation and ventilation.
Question 3
When inserting an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) in an unresponsive adult, the
OPA should be inserted:
A) With the curve directed towards the throat and rotated 90 degrees.
B) With the curve directed towards the roof of the mouth and rotated 180
degrees.
C) Straight along the tongue, without rotation.
D) Lubricated first, then inserted curve down.
,E) Only after the client gags.
Correct Answer: B) With the curve directed towards the roof of the
mouth and rotated 180 degrees.
Rationale: The OPA is typically inserted with the curve pointing
towards the roof of the mouth (upside down), then rotated 180
degrees as it reaches the soft palate. This technique helps guide the
OPA past the tongue and prevents it from pushing the tongue back
and obstructing the airway.
Question 4
Which of the following is a contraindication for the insertion of a
nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
A) Unresponsive client.
B) Oral trauma.
C) Suspected basilar skull fracture.
D) Intact gag reflex.
E) Complete airway obstruction.
Correct Answer: C) Suspected basilar skull fracture.
Rationale: Insertion of an NPA is contraindicated in suspected basilar
skull fractures (indicated by raccoon eyes, Battle's sign, CSF
leakage) due to the risk of the NPA entering the cranial vault.
Severe facial trauma or nasal obstruction are also contraindications.
Question 5
What is the recommended ventilation rate for an adult client in respiratory
arrest (with a pulse), using a bag-valve mask (BVM)?
A) 6-8 breaths per minute.
B) 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds).
C) 15-20 breaths per minute.
D) 20-24 breaths per minute.
E) As fast as possible until chest rise.
Correct Answer: B) 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6
seconds).
Rationale: For an adult in respiratory arrest with a pulse, the
recommended ventilation rate is 1 breath every 5-6 seconds, which
translates to 10-12 breaths per minute. This rate provides adequate
ventilation without causing hyperventilation, which can decrease
cardiac output.
Question 6
What is the primary purpose of continuous waveform capnography during
,advanced airway management?
A) To measure oxygen saturation.
B) To provide a numerical value of blood oxygen.
C) To continuously confirm endotracheal tube (ETT) placement and monitor
ventilation effectiveness.
D) To detect myocardial ischemia.
E) To measure blood pressure.
Correct Answer: C) To continuously confirm endotracheal tube (ETT)
placement and monitor ventilation effectiveness.
Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography is the gold standard
for verifying ETT placement in the trachea (showing consistent
EtCO2 waveforms) and for ongoing monitoring of ventilation
effectiveness and CO2 elimination. A sudden loss of waveform or
zero reading indicates a critical issue like esophageal intubation or
ETT disconnection.
Question 7
A 4-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of "barking" cough,
inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. The child is not drooling. Which
condition is most likely?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bronchiolitis
C) Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D) Foreign body aspiration
E) Asthma exacerbation
Correct Answer: C) Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
Rationale: Croup is a common viral infection in young children
characterized by a distinctive "barking" or "seal-like" cough,
inspiratory stridor (due to subglottic swelling), and often a low-
grade fever. The absence of drooling helps distinguish it from
epiglottitis.
Question 8
When using a Macintosh (curved) laryngoscope blade for endotracheal
intubation in an adult, the tip of the blade is advanced into which anatomical
landmark?
A) Direct contact with the epiglottis.
B) The glottic opening.
C) The piriform fossa.
D) The vallecula.
E) The esophagus.
, Correct Answer: D) The vallecula.
Rationale: The Macintosh blade is designed to be placed in the
vallecula (the space between the base of the tongue and the
epiglottis). By lifting the blade anteriorly, the epiglottis is indirectly
lifted, revealing the vocal cords.
Question 9
Which medication is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a rapid onset
(typically 30-60 seconds) and short duration of action (5-10 minutes) used in
rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
A) Rocuronium
B) Vecuronium
C) Succinylcholine
D) Etomidate
E) Midazolam
Correct Answer: C) Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is the most commonly used depolarizing
neuromuscular blocker for RSI due to its very rapid onset and
relatively short duration, which is advantageous if intubation is
unsuccessful.
Question 10
A client is intubated, and the EtCO2 waveform suddenly drops to zero, and
the patient has no palpable pulse. What is the most likely cause?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Esophageal intubation
C) Complete ETT disconnection
D) Cardiac arrest
E) Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: D) Cardiac arrest
Rationale: A sudden drop of EtCO2 to zero in a patient who has lost a
pulse is a strong indicator of cardiac arrest. While esophageal
intubation and ETT disconnection also cause EtCO2 to drop to zero,
the absence of a pulse points to the circulatory collapse of cardiac
arrest.
Question 11
What is the primary risk associated with hyperventilation of a client with
increased intracranial pressure (ICP) for prolonged periods?
A) Increased cerebral blood flow.
B) Cerebral ischemia due to excessive vasoconstriction.
LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
Question 1
Which anatomical structure is responsible for warming and humidifying
inspired air?
A) Larynx
B) Trachea
C) Nasopharynx
D) Bronchi
E) Alveoli
Correct Answer: C) Nasopharynx
Rationale: The nasopharynx, with its vascular mucous membranes
and turbinates, is primarily responsible for warming, filtering, and
humidifying inspired air before it reaches the lower respiratory
tract.
Question 2
A 72-year-old male client presents with severe respiratory distress, oxygen
saturation of 85% on room air, and is lethargic. His respiratory rate is 8
breaths/min and shallow. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) with supplemental
oxygen.
D) Simple face mask at 10 L/min
E) Place an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) only.
Correct Answer: C) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM)
with supplemental oxygen.
Rationale: The client is severely hypoxemic and hypoventilating
(lethargic, shallow, slow respiratory rate). Passive oxygen delivery
devices are insufficient. Ventilatory assistance with a BVM is
immediately required to improve both oxygenation and ventilation.
Question 3
When inserting an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) in an unresponsive adult, the
OPA should be inserted:
A) With the curve directed towards the throat and rotated 90 degrees.
B) With the curve directed towards the roof of the mouth and rotated 180
degrees.
C) Straight along the tongue, without rotation.
D) Lubricated first, then inserted curve down.
,E) Only after the client gags.
Correct Answer: B) With the curve directed towards the roof of the
mouth and rotated 180 degrees.
Rationale: The OPA is typically inserted with the curve pointing
towards the roof of the mouth (upside down), then rotated 180
degrees as it reaches the soft palate. This technique helps guide the
OPA past the tongue and prevents it from pushing the tongue back
and obstructing the airway.
Question 4
Which of the following is a contraindication for the insertion of a
nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
A) Unresponsive client.
B) Oral trauma.
C) Suspected basilar skull fracture.
D) Intact gag reflex.
E) Complete airway obstruction.
Correct Answer: C) Suspected basilar skull fracture.
Rationale: Insertion of an NPA is contraindicated in suspected basilar
skull fractures (indicated by raccoon eyes, Battle's sign, CSF
leakage) due to the risk of the NPA entering the cranial vault.
Severe facial trauma or nasal obstruction are also contraindications.
Question 5
What is the recommended ventilation rate for an adult client in respiratory
arrest (with a pulse), using a bag-valve mask (BVM)?
A) 6-8 breaths per minute.
B) 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds).
C) 15-20 breaths per minute.
D) 20-24 breaths per minute.
E) As fast as possible until chest rise.
Correct Answer: B) 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6
seconds).
Rationale: For an adult in respiratory arrest with a pulse, the
recommended ventilation rate is 1 breath every 5-6 seconds, which
translates to 10-12 breaths per minute. This rate provides adequate
ventilation without causing hyperventilation, which can decrease
cardiac output.
Question 6
What is the primary purpose of continuous waveform capnography during
,advanced airway management?
A) To measure oxygen saturation.
B) To provide a numerical value of blood oxygen.
C) To continuously confirm endotracheal tube (ETT) placement and monitor
ventilation effectiveness.
D) To detect myocardial ischemia.
E) To measure blood pressure.
Correct Answer: C) To continuously confirm endotracheal tube (ETT)
placement and monitor ventilation effectiveness.
Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography is the gold standard
for verifying ETT placement in the trachea (showing consistent
EtCO2 waveforms) and for ongoing monitoring of ventilation
effectiveness and CO2 elimination. A sudden loss of waveform or
zero reading indicates a critical issue like esophageal intubation or
ETT disconnection.
Question 7
A 4-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of "barking" cough,
inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. The child is not drooling. Which
condition is most likely?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bronchiolitis
C) Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D) Foreign body aspiration
E) Asthma exacerbation
Correct Answer: C) Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
Rationale: Croup is a common viral infection in young children
characterized by a distinctive "barking" or "seal-like" cough,
inspiratory stridor (due to subglottic swelling), and often a low-
grade fever. The absence of drooling helps distinguish it from
epiglottitis.
Question 8
When using a Macintosh (curved) laryngoscope blade for endotracheal
intubation in an adult, the tip of the blade is advanced into which anatomical
landmark?
A) Direct contact with the epiglottis.
B) The glottic opening.
C) The piriform fossa.
D) The vallecula.
E) The esophagus.
, Correct Answer: D) The vallecula.
Rationale: The Macintosh blade is designed to be placed in the
vallecula (the space between the base of the tongue and the
epiglottis). By lifting the blade anteriorly, the epiglottis is indirectly
lifted, revealing the vocal cords.
Question 9
Which medication is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a rapid onset
(typically 30-60 seconds) and short duration of action (5-10 minutes) used in
rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
A) Rocuronium
B) Vecuronium
C) Succinylcholine
D) Etomidate
E) Midazolam
Correct Answer: C) Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is the most commonly used depolarizing
neuromuscular blocker for RSI due to its very rapid onset and
relatively short duration, which is advantageous if intubation is
unsuccessful.
Question 10
A client is intubated, and the EtCO2 waveform suddenly drops to zero, and
the patient has no palpable pulse. What is the most likely cause?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Esophageal intubation
C) Complete ETT disconnection
D) Cardiac arrest
E) Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: D) Cardiac arrest
Rationale: A sudden drop of EtCO2 to zero in a patient who has lost a
pulse is a strong indicator of cardiac arrest. While esophageal
intubation and ETT disconnection also cause EtCO2 to drop to zero,
the absence of a pulse points to the circulatory collapse of cardiac
arrest.
Question 11
What is the primary risk associated with hyperventilation of a client with
increased intracranial pressure (ICP) for prolonged periods?
A) Increased cerebral blood flow.
B) Cerebral ischemia due to excessive vasoconstriction.
