Actual Exam Questions and Correct Answers
The NP is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which best describes the response the NP
should expect if the nerve is intact?
A) Symmetric smile and ability to close eyes
B) Ability to shrug shoulders and turn head against resistance
C) Clear speech and intact gag reflex
D) Pupil constriction in response to light
Correct Answer: B) Ability to shrug shoulders and turn head against resistance
Explanation: Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve) innervates the sternocleidomastoid and
trapezius muscles. An intact nerve allows shoulder shrugging and head turning against
resistance. Other options relate to different cranial nerves (e.g., VII, IX/X, III).
A 29-year-old computer programmer presents with a headache described as a tightening
sensation all over the head, moderate intensity, lasting 5 days (previously minutes), no
photophobia or nausea, worse with prolonged computer use, partially relieved by OTC
medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Migraine
B) Tension-type headache
C) Cluster headache
D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B) Tension-type headache
Explanation: A bilateral, tightening headache without photophobia or nausea, worsened by
computer use, suggests tension-type headache. Migraines involve photophobia/nausea, cluster
headaches are unilateral and severe, and subarachnoid hemorrhage causes sudden, severe pain.
A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents with sudden low back pain after lifting heavy boxes,
with numbness and tingling in the left leg. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated
disc?
A) Straight leg raise test
, B) FABER test
C) Thomas test
D) Trendelenburg test
Correct Answer: A) Straight leg raise test
Explanation: The straight leg raise test assesses for lumbar disc herniation by reproducing
radicular pain (numbness/tingling) when the leg is raised. FABER tests the hip/SI joint, Thomas
tests hip flexors, and Trendelenburg assesses hip stability.
A patient presents with a daily headache worsening over several months. Funduscopic
examination shows an indistinct disc edge and absent venous pulsations. Which is most likely?
A) Migraine
B) Tension-type headache
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Optic neuritis
Correct Answer: C) Increased intracranial pressure
Explanation: Indistinct disc edges and absent venous pulsations indicate papilledema, caused by
increased intracranial pressure (e.g., from a tumor or hydrocephalus). Migraine and tension
headaches lack fundoscopic changes, and optic neuritis causes vision loss.
A 47-year-old male presents to the ED with back pain, saddle numbness, and urinary retention.
Which is an accurate interpretation of these findings?
A) Lumbar strain
B) Cauda equina syndrome
C) Sciatica
D) Herniated disc
Correct Answer: B) Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation: Back pain with saddle numbness and urinary retention suggests cauda equina
syndrome, a neurological emergency from spinal cord compression. Lumbar strain lacks
neurological symptoms, sciatica causes unilateral pain, and herniated discs rarely cause urinary
retention.