ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam | Form B, C and E
ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam | Form B |
2025/2026 Latest Edition | NGN-Style & Case
Scenario Questions | Verified Questions with
Correct Answers | Graded A+
The 2025/2026 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam (Form B) is an updated package
designed to mirror the actual ATI format. It includes 180 questions, featuring Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN)-style items and case scenario-based questions across all major nursing domains:
fundamentals, pharmacology, adult medical-surgical, pediatrics, maternal-newborn,
psychiatric-mental health, leadership, delegation, priority-setting, and evidence-based practice.
Overview
This comprehensive prep material provides verified ATI Comprehensive Predictor questions and
answers with detailed rationales. Content is aligned to the latest NCLEX-RN framework and
integrates clinical judgment measurement models. Structured to build confidence, strengthen
critical thinking, and ensure passing performance. Rated A+ for accuracy and reliability.
Exam Features
● Full coverage of Form B with 180 questions.
● Incorporates Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)-style questions including case
scenarios, bow-tie items, drop-down rationale, and trend analysis.
● Correct answers clearly indicated in bold green with in-depth rationales.
● Comprehensive explanations to reinforce clinical decision-making and safe nursing
practice.
1. A 62-year-old male presents to the ED with chest pain, diaphoresis, and
nausea for 1 hour. BP is 160/90 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR 24/min, SpO2 92%.
ECG shows ST-elevation. The patient is diagnosed with an acute myocardial
infarction. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer acetaminophen
b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
,c) Encourage ambulation
d) Provide a high-fat meal
b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Rationale: ST-elevation indicates an acute MI; confirming with a 12-lead ECG is critical to guide
treatment (e.g., PCI or thrombolytics). Acetaminophen does not address ischemia, ambulation is
contraindicated, and a high-fat meal is inappropriate.
2. (Bow-Tie Item) Which actions and monitoring parameters are
appropriate for this patient?
Options: Administer aspirin, Monitor cardiac rhythm, Encourage bed rest, Administer insulin,
Monitor blood glucose, Administer oxygen.
Actions: Administer aspirin, Administer oxygen, Encourage bed rest; Monitoring:
Monitor cardiac rhythm
Rationale: Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, oxygen improves myocardial oxygenation, and
bed rest reduces cardiac workload. Cardiac rhythm monitoring detects arrhythmias. Insulin and
glucose monitoring are not priorities unless diabetes is present.
3. (Drop-Down Rationale) Why is nitroglycerin administered?
Select the correct rationale:
a) Reduces blood pressure
b) Dilates coronary arteries
c) Increases heart rate
d) Prevents arrhythmias
b) Dilates coronary arteries
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the myocardium,
reducing ischemia in MI.
4. A 6-year-old child with asthma presents with wheezing, dyspnea, and
SpO2 90%. The child is anxious and using accessory muscles. Peak flow is
50% of personal best. What is the priority intervention?
a) Administer antibiotics
b) Give albuterol via nebulizer
c) Encourage bed rest
d) Limit oxygen therapy
b) Give albuterol via nebulizer
Rationale: Albuterol relieves bronchospasm, improving airflow in asthma exacerbations.
Antibiotics are not indicated unless infection is confirmed, bed rest is secondary, and oxygen is
not the priority.
5. (Bow-Tie Item) Which actions and assessments are appropriate?
Options: Administer corticosteroids, Monitor respiratory rate, Provide humidified oxygen,
Administer insulin, Monitor blood glucose, Position upright.
Actions: Administer corticosteroids, Provide humidified oxygen, Position upright;
Assessments: Monitor respiratory rate
Rationale: Corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation, oxygen improves SpO2, and upright
,positioning eases breathing. Respiratory rate monitoring assesses response. Insulin and glucose
monitoring are irrelevant.
6. (Trend Analysis) What trend indicates improvement?
a) Decreased peak flow
b) Increased SpO2
c) Increased wheezing
d) Decreased respiratory rate
b) Increased SpO2
Rationale: Increased SpO2 indicates improved oxygenation, a key sign of asthma exacerbation
resolution.
7. What is the first step in the nursing process?
a) Planning
b) Assessment
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
b) Assessment
Rationale: Assessment involves collecting data to identify patient needs, forming the foundation
for all nursing process steps.
8. What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking warfarin?
a) Blood glucose
b) INR levels
c) Sodium levels
d) Heart rate
b) INR levels
Rationale: INR monitoring ensures therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin, preventing
bleeding or clotting.
9. What indicates a risk for preeclampsia?
a) Hypotension
b) Proteinuria
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Decreased edema
b) Proteinuria
Rationale: Proteinuria, with hypertension, is a hallmark of preeclampsia, indicating renal
involvement.
10. What is a priority for a patient with suicidal ideation?
a) Encouraging isolation
b) Ensuring a safe environment
c) Administering sedatives
d) Ignoring verbal cues
b) Ensuring a safe environment
, Rationale: A safe environment prevents self-harm in patients with suicidal ideation, prioritizing
safety.
11. What is a key component of effective team communication?
a) Avoiding collaboration
b) Using SBAR
c) Ignoring patient data
d) Skipping handoffs
b) Using SBAR
Rationale: SBAR ensures clear, structured communication, enhancing patient safety during
handoffs.
12. Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
a) Administering IV medications
b) Taking vital signs
c) Developing a care plan
d) Assessing pain levels
b) Taking vital signs
Rationale: Taking vital signs is within a UAP’s scope, while medication administration, care
planning, and assessments require RN licensure.
13. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a) Stable patient awaiting discharge
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
c) Patient requesting pain medication
d) Patient with a scheduled dressing change
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
Rationale: Dyspnea and low oxygen saturation indicate a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate attention.
14. What is a key infection control measure?
a) Reusing gloves
b) Proper hand hygiene
c) Avoiding PPE
d) Ignoring isolation protocols
b) Proper hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
15. What is a common side effect of lisinopril?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Bradycardia
a) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion.
ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam | Form B |
2025/2026 Latest Edition | NGN-Style & Case
Scenario Questions | Verified Questions with
Correct Answers | Graded A+
The 2025/2026 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam (Form B) is an updated package
designed to mirror the actual ATI format. It includes 180 questions, featuring Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN)-style items and case scenario-based questions across all major nursing domains:
fundamentals, pharmacology, adult medical-surgical, pediatrics, maternal-newborn,
psychiatric-mental health, leadership, delegation, priority-setting, and evidence-based practice.
Overview
This comprehensive prep material provides verified ATI Comprehensive Predictor questions and
answers with detailed rationales. Content is aligned to the latest NCLEX-RN framework and
integrates clinical judgment measurement models. Structured to build confidence, strengthen
critical thinking, and ensure passing performance. Rated A+ for accuracy and reliability.
Exam Features
● Full coverage of Form B with 180 questions.
● Incorporates Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)-style questions including case
scenarios, bow-tie items, drop-down rationale, and trend analysis.
● Correct answers clearly indicated in bold green with in-depth rationales.
● Comprehensive explanations to reinforce clinical decision-making and safe nursing
practice.
1. A 62-year-old male presents to the ED with chest pain, diaphoresis, and
nausea for 1 hour. BP is 160/90 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR 24/min, SpO2 92%.
ECG shows ST-elevation. The patient is diagnosed with an acute myocardial
infarction. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer acetaminophen
b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
,c) Encourage ambulation
d) Provide a high-fat meal
b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Rationale: ST-elevation indicates an acute MI; confirming with a 12-lead ECG is critical to guide
treatment (e.g., PCI or thrombolytics). Acetaminophen does not address ischemia, ambulation is
contraindicated, and a high-fat meal is inappropriate.
2. (Bow-Tie Item) Which actions and monitoring parameters are
appropriate for this patient?
Options: Administer aspirin, Monitor cardiac rhythm, Encourage bed rest, Administer insulin,
Monitor blood glucose, Administer oxygen.
Actions: Administer aspirin, Administer oxygen, Encourage bed rest; Monitoring:
Monitor cardiac rhythm
Rationale: Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, oxygen improves myocardial oxygenation, and
bed rest reduces cardiac workload. Cardiac rhythm monitoring detects arrhythmias. Insulin and
glucose monitoring are not priorities unless diabetes is present.
3. (Drop-Down Rationale) Why is nitroglycerin administered?
Select the correct rationale:
a) Reduces blood pressure
b) Dilates coronary arteries
c) Increases heart rate
d) Prevents arrhythmias
b) Dilates coronary arteries
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the myocardium,
reducing ischemia in MI.
4. A 6-year-old child with asthma presents with wheezing, dyspnea, and
SpO2 90%. The child is anxious and using accessory muscles. Peak flow is
50% of personal best. What is the priority intervention?
a) Administer antibiotics
b) Give albuterol via nebulizer
c) Encourage bed rest
d) Limit oxygen therapy
b) Give albuterol via nebulizer
Rationale: Albuterol relieves bronchospasm, improving airflow in asthma exacerbations.
Antibiotics are not indicated unless infection is confirmed, bed rest is secondary, and oxygen is
not the priority.
5. (Bow-Tie Item) Which actions and assessments are appropriate?
Options: Administer corticosteroids, Monitor respiratory rate, Provide humidified oxygen,
Administer insulin, Monitor blood glucose, Position upright.
Actions: Administer corticosteroids, Provide humidified oxygen, Position upright;
Assessments: Monitor respiratory rate
Rationale: Corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation, oxygen improves SpO2, and upright
,positioning eases breathing. Respiratory rate monitoring assesses response. Insulin and glucose
monitoring are irrelevant.
6. (Trend Analysis) What trend indicates improvement?
a) Decreased peak flow
b) Increased SpO2
c) Increased wheezing
d) Decreased respiratory rate
b) Increased SpO2
Rationale: Increased SpO2 indicates improved oxygenation, a key sign of asthma exacerbation
resolution.
7. What is the first step in the nursing process?
a) Planning
b) Assessment
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
b) Assessment
Rationale: Assessment involves collecting data to identify patient needs, forming the foundation
for all nursing process steps.
8. What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking warfarin?
a) Blood glucose
b) INR levels
c) Sodium levels
d) Heart rate
b) INR levels
Rationale: INR monitoring ensures therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin, preventing
bleeding or clotting.
9. What indicates a risk for preeclampsia?
a) Hypotension
b) Proteinuria
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Decreased edema
b) Proteinuria
Rationale: Proteinuria, with hypertension, is a hallmark of preeclampsia, indicating renal
involvement.
10. What is a priority for a patient with suicidal ideation?
a) Encouraging isolation
b) Ensuring a safe environment
c) Administering sedatives
d) Ignoring verbal cues
b) Ensuring a safe environment
, Rationale: A safe environment prevents self-harm in patients with suicidal ideation, prioritizing
safety.
11. What is a key component of effective team communication?
a) Avoiding collaboration
b) Using SBAR
c) Ignoring patient data
d) Skipping handoffs
b) Using SBAR
Rationale: SBAR ensures clear, structured communication, enhancing patient safety during
handoffs.
12. Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
a) Administering IV medications
b) Taking vital signs
c) Developing a care plan
d) Assessing pain levels
b) Taking vital signs
Rationale: Taking vital signs is within a UAP’s scope, while medication administration, care
planning, and assessments require RN licensure.
13. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a) Stable patient awaiting discharge
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
c) Patient requesting pain medication
d) Patient with a scheduled dressing change
b) Patient with dyspnea and low oxygen saturation
Rationale: Dyspnea and low oxygen saturation indicate a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate attention.
14. What is a key infection control measure?
a) Reusing gloves
b) Proper hand hygiene
c) Avoiding PPE
d) Ignoring isolation protocols
b) Proper hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
15. What is a common side effect of lisinopril?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Bradycardia
a) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion.
