ATCN EXAM WITH 100 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
During the primary survey of a trauma patient, which of the following
assessments is part of "A" (Airway)?
A) Assessing for equality of pupils.
B) Palpating for a carotid pulse.
C) Opening the airway and assessing for patency, suctioning as needed.
D) Assessing for chest rise and fall.
E) Checking for capillary refill.
Correct Answer: C) Opening the airway and assessing for patency,
suctioning as needed.
Rationale: "A" in the primary survey focuses on maintaining a patent
airway, which includes opening the airway (e.g., jaw thrust),
assessing for obstructions, and suctioning secretions or foreign
bodies.
Question 2
A 35-year-old male presents with severe respiratory distress, absent breath
sounds on the right, and tracheal deviation to the left. These findings are
most indicative of:
A) Simple pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Flail chest
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Pulmonary contusion
Correct Answer: D) Tension pneumothorax
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition
characterized by air accumulation in the pleural space, compressing
the lung and mediastinum. Classic signs include severe respiratory
distress, absent breath sounds on the affected side, and tracheal
deviation away from the affected side.
,Question 3
What is the most immediate intervention for a patient with a suspected
tension pneumothorax?
A) Chest tube insertion
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Needle decompression
D) Bag-valve mask ventilation
E) Placing the patient in a Fowler's position
Correct Answer: C) Needle decompression
Rationale: Needle decompression is the immediate, life-saving
intervention for a tension pneumothorax to relieve the trapped air
and pressure within the pleural space. This is typically followed by a
chest tube insertion.
Question 4
During the primary survey, "C" (Circulation) includes assessment for and
management of:
A) Level of consciousness.
B) Obvious external bleeding.
C) Airway patency.
D) Respiratory rate and effort.
E) Pupillary response.
Correct Answer: B) Obvious external bleeding.
Rationale: Assessment of circulation includes checking for a pulse,
assessing skin color/temperature, and identifying and controlling
any obvious external hemorrhage, as uncontrolled bleeding is a
leading cause of preventable trauma deaths.
Question 5
A 22-year-old female fell from a height and is presenting with signs of shock.
Her blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, heart rate 130 bpm, and she has cool,
clammy skin. Which type of shock is most likely?
,A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
E) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: D) Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Falling from a height suggests significant blunt trauma
and potential internal bleeding. The patient's signs (hypotension,
tachycardia, cool/clammy skin) are classic for hypovolemic shock
due to blood loss.
Question 6
What is the most appropriate initial fluid for resuscitation in a hypovolemic
trauma patient?
A) Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)
B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) or Lactated Ringer's
C) Albumin
D) Packed red blood cells
E) Hypertonic saline
Correct Answer: B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) or Lactated
Ringer's
Rationale: Isotonic crystalloid solutions like normal saline or Lactated
Ringer's are the preferred initial fluids for rapid volume expansion
in hypovolemic shock, as they closely resemble the body's
extracellular fluid.
Question 7
The "AMPLE" history is obtained during which phase of the trauma
assessment?
A) Primary survey
B) Resuscitation phase
C) Secondary survey
, D) Definitive care phase
E) Tertiary survey
Correct Answer: C) Secondary survey
Rationale: The AMPLE history (Allergies, Medications, Past medical
history/Pregnancy, Last meal, Events leading to injury) is a focused
history obtained during the secondary survey, after the primary
survey and life threats have been addressed.
Question 8
Which of the following is a component of "Exposure" (E) during the primary
survey?
A) Assessing for chest rise and fall.
B) Applying a cervical collar.
C) Fully undressing the patient to assess for all injuries.
D) Palpating the abdomen for tenderness.
E) Performing a rapid head-to-toe assessment.
Correct Answer: C) Fully undressing the patient to assess for all
injuries.
Rationale: "Exposure" involves completely undressing the patient to
allow for a thorough visual inspection for injuries, followed
immediately by covering the patient to prevent hypothermia.
Question 9
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
A) Severity of burns.
B) Airway patency.
C) Level of consciousness.
D) Extent of spinal injury.
E) Risk of hemorrhage.
Correct Answer: C) Level of consciousness.
Rationale: The GCS is a standardized neurological tool used to assess
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
During the primary survey of a trauma patient, which of the following
assessments is part of "A" (Airway)?
A) Assessing for equality of pupils.
B) Palpating for a carotid pulse.
C) Opening the airway and assessing for patency, suctioning as needed.
D) Assessing for chest rise and fall.
E) Checking for capillary refill.
Correct Answer: C) Opening the airway and assessing for patency,
suctioning as needed.
Rationale: "A" in the primary survey focuses on maintaining a patent
airway, which includes opening the airway (e.g., jaw thrust),
assessing for obstructions, and suctioning secretions or foreign
bodies.
Question 2
A 35-year-old male presents with severe respiratory distress, absent breath
sounds on the right, and tracheal deviation to the left. These findings are
most indicative of:
A) Simple pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Flail chest
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Pulmonary contusion
Correct Answer: D) Tension pneumothorax
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition
characterized by air accumulation in the pleural space, compressing
the lung and mediastinum. Classic signs include severe respiratory
distress, absent breath sounds on the affected side, and tracheal
deviation away from the affected side.
,Question 3
What is the most immediate intervention for a patient with a suspected
tension pneumothorax?
A) Chest tube insertion
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Needle decompression
D) Bag-valve mask ventilation
E) Placing the patient in a Fowler's position
Correct Answer: C) Needle decompression
Rationale: Needle decompression is the immediate, life-saving
intervention for a tension pneumothorax to relieve the trapped air
and pressure within the pleural space. This is typically followed by a
chest tube insertion.
Question 4
During the primary survey, "C" (Circulation) includes assessment for and
management of:
A) Level of consciousness.
B) Obvious external bleeding.
C) Airway patency.
D) Respiratory rate and effort.
E) Pupillary response.
Correct Answer: B) Obvious external bleeding.
Rationale: Assessment of circulation includes checking for a pulse,
assessing skin color/temperature, and identifying and controlling
any obvious external hemorrhage, as uncontrolled bleeding is a
leading cause of preventable trauma deaths.
Question 5
A 22-year-old female fell from a height and is presenting with signs of shock.
Her blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, heart rate 130 bpm, and she has cool,
clammy skin. Which type of shock is most likely?
,A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
E) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: D) Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Falling from a height suggests significant blunt trauma
and potential internal bleeding. The patient's signs (hypotension,
tachycardia, cool/clammy skin) are classic for hypovolemic shock
due to blood loss.
Question 6
What is the most appropriate initial fluid for resuscitation in a hypovolemic
trauma patient?
A) Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)
B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) or Lactated Ringer's
C) Albumin
D) Packed red blood cells
E) Hypertonic saline
Correct Answer: B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) or Lactated
Ringer's
Rationale: Isotonic crystalloid solutions like normal saline or Lactated
Ringer's are the preferred initial fluids for rapid volume expansion
in hypovolemic shock, as they closely resemble the body's
extracellular fluid.
Question 7
The "AMPLE" history is obtained during which phase of the trauma
assessment?
A) Primary survey
B) Resuscitation phase
C) Secondary survey
, D) Definitive care phase
E) Tertiary survey
Correct Answer: C) Secondary survey
Rationale: The AMPLE history (Allergies, Medications, Past medical
history/Pregnancy, Last meal, Events leading to injury) is a focused
history obtained during the secondary survey, after the primary
survey and life threats have been addressed.
Question 8
Which of the following is a component of "Exposure" (E) during the primary
survey?
A) Assessing for chest rise and fall.
B) Applying a cervical collar.
C) Fully undressing the patient to assess for all injuries.
D) Palpating the abdomen for tenderness.
E) Performing a rapid head-to-toe assessment.
Correct Answer: C) Fully undressing the patient to assess for all
injuries.
Rationale: "Exposure" involves completely undressing the patient to
allow for a thorough visual inspection for injuries, followed
immediately by covering the patient to prevent hypothermia.
Question 9
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
A) Severity of burns.
B) Airway patency.
C) Level of consciousness.
D) Extent of spinal injury.
E) Risk of hemorrhage.
Correct Answer: C) Level of consciousness.
Rationale: The GCS is a standardized neurological tool used to assess
