PARAMEDIC FISDAP FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1
A 58-year-old male is experiencing crushing substernal chest pain radiating
to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and dyspneic. His ECG shows ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What area of the heart is most likely
experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
A) Anterior wall
B) Septal wall
C) Lateral wall
D) Inferior wall
E) Posterior wall
Correct Answer: D) Inferior wall
Rationale: ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF specifically
indicates an acute myocardial infarction of the inferior wall of the
left ventricle, which is supplied by the Right Coronary Artery (RCA).
Question 2
What is the primary action of Adenosine when administered to a patient with
stable Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?
A) Increases heart rate by stimulating beta-receptors.
B) Prolongs the QT interval, increasing ventricular refractoriness.
C) Briefly blocks conduction through the AV node, terminating reentrant
pathways.
D) Decreases myocardial contractility.
E) Causes peripheral vasodilation, reducing preload.
Correct Answer: C) Briefly blocks conduction through the AV node,
terminating reentrant pathways.
Rationale: Adenosine transiently blocks conduction through the AV
node, interrupting the reentrant circuit that causes most SVTs,
thereby converting the rhythm to sinus or unmasking underlying
atrial activity.
,Question 3
A 6-year-old child presents with a "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor, and
mild respiratory distress, without fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bacterial tracheitis
C) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
D) Asthma exacerbation
E) Foreign body airway obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
Rationale: Croup is a common viral infection of the upper airway,
characterized by a distinctive "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor,
and often mild fever. Epiglottitis typically presents with high fever,
drooling, and severe distress.
Question 4
What is the most accurate method for determining the proper depth of
endotracheal tube (ETT) insertion in an adult?
A) Auscultating bilateral breath sounds.
B) Observing symmetrical chest rise.
C) Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
D) Noting the distance mark at the teeth/gums (typically 21-23 cm for
adults).
E) Observing for esophageal detector device confirmation.
Correct Answer: D) Noting the distance mark at the teeth/gums
(typically 21-23 cm for adults).
Rationale: While auscultation and chest rise confirm placement,
noting the ETT depth mark at the teeth/gums (typically 21-23 cm for
adult males, 20-22 cm for females) provides the most immediate
and objective indication of appropriate depth to prevent mainstem
intubation.
,Question 5
A 72-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. His ECG shows
organized electrical activity at a rate of 70 bpm, but no palpable pulse. What
rhythm is this?
A) Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib)
B) Asystole
C) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
D) Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
E) Third-Degree AV Block
Correct Answer: C) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
Rationale: PEA is characterized by organized electrical activity on the
ECG (not VFib or Asystole) but no detectable pulse, indicating the
heart's electrical system is working but not mechanically pumping
blood effectively.
Question 6
Which of the following is a classic sign of a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal deviation toward the injured side.
B) Bradycardia and hypertension.
C) Unilateral absent or diminished breath sounds and tracheal deviation
away from the injured side.
D) Jugular vein distention (JVD) with clear lung sounds bilaterally.
E) Paradoxical chest wall movement.
Correct Answer: C) Unilateral absent or diminished breath sounds and
tracheal deviation away from the injured side.
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening accumulation
of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, mediastinal
shift, absent breath sounds on the affected side, and tracheal
deviation away from that side due to extreme pressure.
Question 7
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a conscious patient
, experiencing a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) with respiratory
distress?
A) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally.
B) Albuterol via nebulizer.
C) Epinephrine 1:1,000 intramuscularly.
D) Supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula.
E) IV corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: C) Epinephrine 1:1,000 intramuscularly.
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line and most critical medication
for severe anaphylaxis. It rapidly reverses bronchospasm,
vasoconstricts to improve blood pressure, and reduces edema.
Question 8
A 35-year-old male was struck by a car. He is conscious but restless, has
pale, cool, clammy skin, a weak radial pulse of 120 bpm, and blood pressure
of 80/50 mmHg. What type of shock is he most likely experiencing?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
E) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: D) Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: The patient's presentation (restlessness, pale/cool/clammy
skin, tachycardia, hypotension) following blunt trauma is classic for
hypovolemic shock due to internal blood loss.
Question 9
What is the recommended dose of epinephrine 1:10,000 intravenously for an
adult in cardiac arrest?
A) 0.1 mg
B) 0.3 mg
C) 0.5 mg
NEWEST COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1
A 58-year-old male is experiencing crushing substernal chest pain radiating
to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and dyspneic. His ECG shows ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What area of the heart is most likely
experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
A) Anterior wall
B) Septal wall
C) Lateral wall
D) Inferior wall
E) Posterior wall
Correct Answer: D) Inferior wall
Rationale: ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF specifically
indicates an acute myocardial infarction of the inferior wall of the
left ventricle, which is supplied by the Right Coronary Artery (RCA).
Question 2
What is the primary action of Adenosine when administered to a patient with
stable Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?
A) Increases heart rate by stimulating beta-receptors.
B) Prolongs the QT interval, increasing ventricular refractoriness.
C) Briefly blocks conduction through the AV node, terminating reentrant
pathways.
D) Decreases myocardial contractility.
E) Causes peripheral vasodilation, reducing preload.
Correct Answer: C) Briefly blocks conduction through the AV node,
terminating reentrant pathways.
Rationale: Adenosine transiently blocks conduction through the AV
node, interrupting the reentrant circuit that causes most SVTs,
thereby converting the rhythm to sinus or unmasking underlying
atrial activity.
,Question 3
A 6-year-old child presents with a "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor, and
mild respiratory distress, without fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bacterial tracheitis
C) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
D) Asthma exacerbation
E) Foreign body airway obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
Rationale: Croup is a common viral infection of the upper airway,
characterized by a distinctive "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor,
and often mild fever. Epiglottitis typically presents with high fever,
drooling, and severe distress.
Question 4
What is the most accurate method for determining the proper depth of
endotracheal tube (ETT) insertion in an adult?
A) Auscultating bilateral breath sounds.
B) Observing symmetrical chest rise.
C) Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
D) Noting the distance mark at the teeth/gums (typically 21-23 cm for
adults).
E) Observing for esophageal detector device confirmation.
Correct Answer: D) Noting the distance mark at the teeth/gums
(typically 21-23 cm for adults).
Rationale: While auscultation and chest rise confirm placement,
noting the ETT depth mark at the teeth/gums (typically 21-23 cm for
adult males, 20-22 cm for females) provides the most immediate
and objective indication of appropriate depth to prevent mainstem
intubation.
,Question 5
A 72-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. His ECG shows
organized electrical activity at a rate of 70 bpm, but no palpable pulse. What
rhythm is this?
A) Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib)
B) Asystole
C) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
D) Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
E) Third-Degree AV Block
Correct Answer: C) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
Rationale: PEA is characterized by organized electrical activity on the
ECG (not VFib or Asystole) but no detectable pulse, indicating the
heart's electrical system is working but not mechanically pumping
blood effectively.
Question 6
Which of the following is a classic sign of a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal deviation toward the injured side.
B) Bradycardia and hypertension.
C) Unilateral absent or diminished breath sounds and tracheal deviation
away from the injured side.
D) Jugular vein distention (JVD) with clear lung sounds bilaterally.
E) Paradoxical chest wall movement.
Correct Answer: C) Unilateral absent or diminished breath sounds and
tracheal deviation away from the injured side.
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening accumulation
of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, mediastinal
shift, absent breath sounds on the affected side, and tracheal
deviation away from that side due to extreme pressure.
Question 7
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a conscious patient
, experiencing a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) with respiratory
distress?
A) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally.
B) Albuterol via nebulizer.
C) Epinephrine 1:1,000 intramuscularly.
D) Supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula.
E) IV corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: C) Epinephrine 1:1,000 intramuscularly.
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line and most critical medication
for severe anaphylaxis. It rapidly reverses bronchospasm,
vasoconstricts to improve blood pressure, and reduces edema.
Question 8
A 35-year-old male was struck by a car. He is conscious but restless, has
pale, cool, clammy skin, a weak radial pulse of 120 bpm, and blood pressure
of 80/50 mmHg. What type of shock is he most likely experiencing?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
E) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: D) Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: The patient's presentation (restlessness, pale/cool/clammy
skin, tachycardia, hypotension) following blunt trauma is classic for
hypovolemic shock due to internal blood loss.
Question 9
What is the recommended dose of epinephrine 1:10,000 intravenously for an
adult in cardiac arrest?
A) 0.1 mg
B) 0.3 mg
C) 0.5 mg
