FAMILY MEDICINE COMAT EXAM TEST BANK WITH COMPLETE VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
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A 28-year-old male presents with a complaint of headaches of 6 months' duration.
History reveals that he has sharp, left-sided periorbital pain up to 4 days per week
with associated facial flushing and diaphoresis on the ipsilateral side. He reports
that his headaches always start in the evenings and usually resolve in about 90
minutes. He has tried secluding himself to a dark, quiet room as well as taking
ibuprofen or acetaminophen without relief. He denies any preceding auras.
Physical examination reveals a well appearing male with an unremarkable physical
exam. The most likely diagnosis is
A. classic migraine headache
B. cluster headache
C. non-classic migraine headache
D. substance overuse headache
E. tension headache
B (cluster headaches are more common in young men, characterized by attacks of
intense unilateral pain usually involving the orbital, supraorbital or temporal
region and are associated with ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhea, nasal
congestion, conjunctival injection, facial or eyelid swelling, miosis, and ptosis -
cluster headaches respond to high flow oxygen therapy as well as abortive
therapy)
A 68-year-old male with past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus
type II, benign prostatic hyperplasia, gastroesophageal reflux, and chronic low
back pain is undergoing a computed tomography scan with IV contrast for a
suspected parapneumonic empyema. Which of the following medications must be
discontinued prior to the study?
A. famotidine
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B. hydrochlorothiazide
C. metformin
D. oxycodone/acetaminophen
E. tamsulosin
C (metformin is primarily excreted by the kidneys, which also process the
iodinated IV contrast used in CT scans - to avoid nephrotoxicity or acute kidney
injury, metformin should be discontinued temporarily for 48 hours subsequent to
the administration of contrast media and should only be restarted after renal
function has been confirmed as normal) (
A 25-year-old healthcare professional presents to the primary care physician for a
pre-employment examination. Which vaccination should she receive?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B
C. human papillomavirus
D. meningococcal
E. pneumococcal
F. varicella
B (the hepatitis B vaccine is indicated for high risk individuals, including men who
have sex men, individuals with multiple sexual partners, individuals with a sexual
partner who has hepatitis B, all health care workers [due to potential for
needlestick contamination], travelers to countries with endemic hepatitis B, and
any patient with a comorbidity, such as diabetes, HIV, chronic liver disease, or end
stage kidney disease)
A 26-year-old female just had a positive pregnancy test at home presents to her
primary care physician and asks which vaccination carries the highest risk of birth
defects. The answer is
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B
C. human papillomavirus
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D. meningococcal
E. pneumococcal
F. varicella
F (the highest risk vaccines for birth defects are those that contain live virus -
these include measles, mumps, rubella [usually given together as the MMR
vaccine], varicella, influenza, and rotavirus - these vaccines should also be avoided
in immunocompromised patients)
A 66-year-old male presents to the primary care physician after placement of new
cochlear implants. Which vaccination should he receive?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B
C. human papillomavirus
D. meningococcal
E. pneumococcal
F. varicella
E (the pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for patients above 65 years of age,
as well as for any patients with cochlear implants if between 19 and 64)
An 18-year-old male recently started college and living on campus. Which
vaccination should she receive?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B
C. human papillomavirus
D. meningococcal
E. pneumococcal
F. varicella
D (meningococcal vaccination is most commonly recommended for young adult
patients living in closed spaces like dormitories and military barracks)
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A 76-year-old female presents to your office stating that she is "walking funny."
She first noticed this abnormality eight months ago when her left hip began
hurting. She had been diagnosed with mild to moderate degenerative joint
disease of her left hip. Physical examination reveals her right hip to drop when
standing on her left leg. This is most likely due to weakened
A. knee flexors
B. hip abductors
C. hip adductors
D. hip extensors
E. hip flexors
B (a trendelenburg sign is caused b weakness of the hip abductors, such as the
gluteus medius)
A 23-year-old immigrant from Mexico presented to clinic with cough, hemoptysis
and weight loss for two months. Acid-fast bacilli were seen on sputum smear.
Sputum culture is positive for multi-drug resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
This should be reported to the
A. Center for Disease Control and Prevention
B. County Health Department
C. National Committee of Quality Assurance
D. National Institute of Health
E. World Health Organization
A (new strains of multi-drug resistant organisms should be reported to the centers
for disease control [CDC])
A 54-year -old female presents with foot pain. History reveals that she can
ambulate without difficulty and pain, but that her heel is painful especially in the
morning. Physical examination elicits tenderness upon palpation of the calcaneal
tuberosity with 5/5 muscle strength, 2+ Achilles reflexes, and normal range of
motion. the tenderness at the calcaneal tuberosity improves somewhat with full
plantar flexion. Additionally, you note paravertebral hypertonicity from L1-2
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