C) Client's systolic blood pres- sure
decreases from 180 to 90.
1. Following the administration D) Client's SaO2 level increases from
of sublingual nitroglycerin to 92% to 96%.
a client experiencing an acute
anginal attack, which assess- 2. Following heparin treatment for a
ment finding indicates to the pulmonary embolism, a client is
nurse that the desired effect being discharged
has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is re-
lieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases
from 120 to 90.
, Pharmacology Quiz for Nursing, NP, and Medical Exams.
Client states chest pain is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen
consump- tion which decreases ischemia and
reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur
if the angina was relieved, but are not as significant
as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C)
may indicate a reduction in pain, or a potentially Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
serious side ettect of the medication.
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the
with a prescription for warfarin therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times
Coumadin. In conducting dis- greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion
charge teaching, the nurse ad- might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly
vises the client to have which (A). APTT is monitored for the client receiving heparin therapy
diagnostic test monitored reg- (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
ularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thrombo-
plastin (APTT).
, Pharmacology Quiz for Nursing, NP, and Medical Exams.
D) Serum Coumadin level
(SCL).
3. A healthcare provider pre- Penicillin
scribes cephalexin monohy-
drate Keflex for a client with Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and
a postoperative infection. It is cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so
most important for the nurse checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before ad-
to assess for what additional ministering this drug.
drug allergy before adminis-
tering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
4. A client is admitted to the coro- Nitroglycerin
nary care unit with a med-
ical diagnosis of acute myocar- Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral
dial infarction. Which med- vasodilation and decreases contractility, thereby decreasing
ication prescription decreases both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker
both preload and afterload? that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only de-
creases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen
A) Nitroglycerin. consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin con-
B) Propranolol (Inderal). verting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasocon-
C) Morphine. striction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
D) Captopril (Capoten).
5. Which dosing schedule should Every 12 hours
the nurse teach the client to
observe for a controlled-re- Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-act-
lease oxycodone prescription? ing analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain, so a
, Pharmacology Quiz for Nursing, NP, and Medical Exams.
dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best
A) As needed. around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxy-
B) Every 12 hours. codone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or
C) Every 24 hours. as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative ettects.
6. A peak and trough level must Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given
be drawn for a client receiving
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its
antibiotic therapy. What is the
lowest, which is typically just before the next dose is given (B).
optimum time for the nurse to
(A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining
obtain the trough level?
a trough level of an antibiotic.
A) Sixty minutes after the an-
tibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next
antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glu-
cose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the
next antibiotic dose is given.
7. After abdominal surgery, a This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
male client is prescribed formation
low molecular weight heparin
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight he-
LMWH. During administration
parin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-me-
of the medication, the client
diated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophy-
asks the nurse why he is re-
lactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to
ceiving this medication. Which
treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following
is the best response for the
knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve
nurse to provide?
clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).